Apostolic But Not Believing Jesus is The Father?

[Abiding Now]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

there is a difference between being tempted to lust and actually lusting.

Exactly.

[Aquila]

It is written,

1 Timothy 2:4-6 (KJV)
4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; 6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.

There indeed is one God. Indeed there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus. And yes, He gave Himself a ransom for all. Surey this will be testified to in due time.

We do well to use the very terminologies of Scripture itself. If I say that we have one savior, the man Jesus Christ, who is the Son of God... in whom the Father dwells. How have I deviated from the Bible???

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple

I think the word for lust is probably akin to "desire".

Exactly.

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Aquila

It is written,

1 Timothy 2:4-6 (KJV)
4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; 6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.

There indeed is one God. Indeed there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus. And yes, He gave Himself a ransom for all. Surey this will be testified to in due time.

We do well to use the very terminologies of Scripture itself. If I say that we have one savior, the man Jesus Christ, who is the Son of God... in whom the Father dwells. How have I deviated from the Bible???

Amen.

[Sean]

You have not brother Aquila, you are exactly right. When you produce these passages to explain your position, it cannot be refuted.

[mfblume]

Sean, you said...

Originally Posted by Sean

Prax, you said all that to say the KJV translators were wrong and you and your FAKE, ESV Bible and its modern day, copyright restricted author, using FAKE GREEK, is the "more accurate" translation......

Read this folks, your faith in your Bible is under attack .....https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=...78677474,d.cGU

Here is the TRUE translation, in your KJV...
Deuteronomy 6:16
16 Ye shall not tempt the Lord your God, as ye tempted him in Massah.

The KING JAMES VERSION is from the Majority Text. IT IS ACCURATE. Most Accurate./ But what you fail to know is that the Hebrews Scholars who studied the TEXT of the KING JAMES VERSION and the majority text's Hebrew Old Testament know HEBREW better than you!

And they took the HEBREW WORD translated in THE KING JAMES VERSION and said THAT WORD IS THE SAME HEBREW WORD THAT MEANS TEST.

Deuteronomy 6:16 KJV+ Ye shall notH3808 temptH5254 (H853) the LORDH3068 your God,H430 asH834 ye temptedH5254 him in Massah.H4532

Do you know what those numbers are beside the words in the KJV translation? they're James Strong's Numbers that reference the Hebrew Lexicon for the Hebrew words that King James had Translated form the Majority text into English. And when you go to the HEBREW REFERENCE for TEMPT in Deut 6:16, you get THIS DEFINITION.

H5254
נסה
nâsâh
naw-saw'
A primitive root; to test; by implication to attempt: - adventure, assay, prove, tempt, try.

THAT IS FROM THE RECEIVED TEXT'S HEBREW!!!!

Read it out loud to yourself this time.

So, when the ESV used the word "TEST", they were agreeing with the scholars of the Hebrew who defined the terms the KING JAMES VERSION translated into English for us.

YOU HAVE TO GO TO THE HEBREW DEFINITION!

[mfblume]

Sean, why can you not respond to my points and give me answers about satan tempting JESUS TO TEMPT GOD??

[Aquila]

Talking about "modes of existence" and "hypostasis" are using unbiblical terms and imposing unbiblical views and terminologies that aren't found in the text itself. Why not approach what Jesus said afresh and allow Him to define Oneness in the very terms He used?

John 10:30
30 I and my Father are one. (KJV)

John 10:38
38 But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him. (KJV)

John 12:45
45 And he that seeth me seeth him that sent me. (KJV)

John 14:7-10
7 If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him.
8 Philip saith unto him, Lord, shew us the Father, and it sufficeth us.
9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?
10 Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. (KJV)

Who can deny that Christ's own words speak of a union of being, a mutual indwelling?

[Sean]

Originally Posted by mfblume

Sean, why can you not respond to my points and give me answers about satan tempting JESUS TO TEMPT GOD??

Like I said Mike, you dont agree with the KJV bible and are trying to redefine the actual words by a COMMENTATORS" definition.....

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Sean

Like I said Mike, you dont agree with the KJV bible and are trying to redefine the actual words by a COMMENTATORS" definition.....

No, they're not commentators. lol THEY ARE KJV HEBREW SCHOLARS. Now, answer again.