God Does Not Use The "works Of The Devil" - Page 5

Bro-Larry · #41 06-25-2008, 05:55 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Timmy

Larry, are you working on a contradiction-free interpretation? The LCFV?

Now that's a thought, Timmy!

Rico · #42 06-25-2008, 06:17 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by ReformedDave

Why do you study a book you cannot trust??? How do you know ANYTHING is the Word of God? Isn't sad God can't preserve His word?! You seem to pick and choose your Scriptures. Keep some and deny those that you can't reconcile with your thinking.

You noticed. That makes two of us.

Bro-Larry · #43 06-25-2008, 06:22 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by ReformedDave

God uses the 'works' of the devil. Sickness in the form of paralysis of the lame man that Jesus healed. Jesus said that the man's sickness was so that Christ could raise him up.

Could you tell me where this story is?

Rico · #44 06-25-2008, 06:23 PM

Here. Have fun finding fault with this scripture, while you are at it Bro Larry.

Romans 9:14-23 (KJV)

14 What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid. 15 For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion. 16 So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy. 17 For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth. 18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth. 19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will? 20 Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus? 21 not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour? 22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: 23 And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,

Rico · #45 06-25-2008, 06:32 PM

Actually, I think they are talking about the blind man, not the lame man.

John 9:1-3 (KJV)
1 And as Jesus passed by, he saw a man which was blind from his birth. 2 And his disciples asked him, saying, Master, who did sin, this man, or his parents, that he was born blind? 3 Jesus answered, Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents: but that the works of God should be made manifest in him.

Rico · #46 06-25-2008, 06:37 PM

One more and I will leave it alone.

Deut 32:39 (KJV)
39 See now that I, even I, am he, and there is no god with me: I kill, and I make alive; I wound, and I heal: neither is there any that can deliver out of my hand.

Bro-Larry · #47 06-25-2008, 06:46 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by ReformedDave

Larry, I do not do, as you are appearing to, cut out parts of the Scripture. I believe all 66 books are cannon and that none of it contradicts itself. It is clear that you pick and choose your hermanutic principles to fit your preconceived bias. If you don't like what the Bible says it MUST be interpreted or translated wrong. Amazing! What is your training in ancient biblical languages and the science of translation?

You reject the CLEAR teaching of Scripture that states that God allows and causes somethings to happen to humans because He chooses it for His reasons. You can't answer why He allowed the devil to torment Job? The Bible states that Job was an upright man and the devil knew that. God had to take down His protection of Job so the devil could get at him. Why did He create the blind man in his condition? Scripture states that it was not the blind man or his parent's sins but so Jesus could raise him up. Larry, if you believe what the Scripture actually states you cannot get around that. BTW, why did God allow evil men to kill His Son? What kind of mean father would do that?

All you have proven is that there are several passages in the Bible that you don't like so you explain them away. You have no rational basis for accepting part and rejecting part. You are trying to make a god in your own image and likeness. The same God Who is a God of love also has the ability to hate and Scripture, at least in my Bible, says that He does. I may not understand everything but I know better than to think that in my puny mind I can comprehend that awesomeness of a God Who creates according to His own pleasure.

Sounds like talking points to me. Dave, let me give you an example of an apparent contradiction in the KJV, then we'll see how you explain it.

In (Jn 9:3) KJV says, that Jesus answered. "Neither has this man sinned, nor his parents:..."; then, in (Rom 3:23) it says "For all have sinned,...".

If these two scriptures, taken by themselves, without any interpretation, are not contradictory then I don't understand the English Language.

ReformedDave · #48 06-25-2008, 06:48 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rico

Actually, I think they are talking about the blind man, not the lame man.

John 9:1-3 (KJV)
1 And as Jesus passed by, he saw a man which was blind from his birth. 2 And his disciples asked him, saying, Master, who did sin, this man, or his parents, that he was born blind? 3 Jesus answered, Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents: but that the works of God should be made manifest in him.

You are correct. It was a blind guy.

Larry also look at John 11:4- But when Jesus heard it he said, “This illness does not lead to death. It is for the glory of God, so that the Son of God may be glorified through it.”

ReformedDave · #49 06-25-2008, 06:50 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Bro-Larry

Sounds like talking points to me. Dave, let me give you an example of an apparent contradiction in the KJV, then we'll see how you explain it.

In (Jn 9:3) KJV says, that Jesus answered. "Neither has this man sinned, nor his parents:..."; then, in (Rom 3:23) it says "For all have sinned,...".

If these two scriptures, taken by themselves, without any interpretation, are not contradictory then I don't understand the English Language.

The key word is "apparent". Why don't you deal will all the scripture I posted in post 38? What about the talking points? You try to sidestep but you don't answer. Guess that is your answer.

Bro-Larry · #50 06-25-2008, 06:55 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rico

Here. Have fun finding fault with this scripture, while you are at it Bro Larry.

Romans 9:14-23 (KJV)

14 What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid. 15 For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion. 16 So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy. 17 For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth. 18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth. 19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will? 20 Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus? 21 not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour? 22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: 23 And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,

Rico, You left out part of the passage.

It is true that God raised Pharaoh up [to the throne] for His own purpose, but God did not harden Pharoah's heart. Pharoah had the choice to do right or to do wrong. It would be unjust and unrighteous for God to harden Pharaoh's heart against Pharaoh's will. God is neither unjust nor unrighteous.