Do you still believe in/practice foot washing?

[TGBTG]

Originally Posted by TGBTG

Consider this scripture:
1 Tim 5
9 Let a widow be enrolled if she is not less than sixty years of age, having been the wife of one husband,
10 and having a reputation for good works: if she has brought up children, has shown hospitality, has washed the feet of the saints, has cared for the afflicted, and has devoted herself to every good work.

Why would Paul list "washing the saint's feet" as a quality of a widow the church should take care of if feet washing was already an ordinance for the church?

Originally Posted by Esaias

Why wouldn't he?

Because if foot washing was an ordinance for the church, then it would have been expected for all to partake in it. Thus, it cannot be used as a criterion for choosing the widows to be taken care of since ALL would have already been participating in it.

That would be like telling a soccer coach to select only right legged players if it has already been stated that to join the team, one must be a right legged player.

Originally Posted by TGBTG

Moreover, as far as Matt 28:20 "...them to observe all that I have commanded you..." Baptism and communion are clearly outlined as ordinances in the epistles. Which apostle taught feet washing?

Originally Posted by Esaias

John, when he made sure by the inspiration of God that Jesus' command to wash one another's feet was recorded for all time.

John was narrating an event, not giving doctrine.

An example of an ordinance
1 Cor 11 For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, that the Lord Jesus the same night in which he was betrayed took bread:
1 Cor 15 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;

Water Baptism:
We see the command (Matt 28), and we see the practice in the church (Acts 2, 8, 1 Cor 1, Gal 3, etc)

Passover (or Lord's supper, whatever you wanna call it)
We see the command (Matt 26), and we see the practice in the church (1 Cor 11)

Feet washing
John 13
14 If I then, your Lord and Master, have washed your feet; ye also ought to wash one another's feet.
15 For I have given you an example, that ye should do as I have done to you.

Where is the practice in the church?

If however, you stay with the intent of the "ordinance,"

1 Peter 5
1 The elders which are among you I exhort, who am also an elder, and a witness of the sufferings of Christ, and also a partaker of the glory that shall be revealed:
2 Feed the flock of God which is among you, taking the oversight thereof, not by constraint, but willingly; not for filthy lucre, but of a ready mind;
3 Neither as being lords over God's heritage, but being examples to the flock.
4 And when the chief Shepherd shall appear, ye shall receive a crown of glory that fadeth not away.
5 Likewise, ye younger, submit yourselves unto the elder. Yea, all of you be subject one to another, and be clothed with humility: for God resisteth the proud, and giveth grace to the humble.

My thoughts anyway, peace!

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by TGBTG

Because if foot washing was an ordinance for the church, then it would have been expected for all to partake in it. Thus, it cannot be used as a criterion for choosing the widows to be taken care of since ALL would have already been participating in it.

So we should not expect everyone in the church of God to 'have a reputation for good works', or to 'show hospitality', or be 'devoted to every good work' then, since such things are the 'qualifications for a widow' and thus woul dnot have been expected of ALL to participate in?

John was narrating an event, not giving doctrine.

But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name. John 20:31

The purpose of John's gospel was not a mere 'narration of events'. He recorded what Jesus did and said, and what happened to him, so others might learn the story and message of Jesus. That is DOCTRINE, 'teaching'. If what you suggest is true, then there can be no doctrine derived from any of the four gospels or from the book of Acts, or from the book Revelation, nor from any historical record in any part of the Bible whatsoever.

But in regards to footwashing, we do not just have a narration of events 'from which we deduce' a doctrine, practice, or 'ordinance'. Instead, we have the account of Jesus not only doing something, but COMMANDING THAT IT BE DONE BY HIS DISCIPLES.

So John narrated an event of how Jesus GAVE both DOCTRINE AND COMMANDMENT to His church.

An example of an ordinance
1 Cor 11 For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, that the Lord Jesus the same night in which he was betrayed took bread:
1 Cor 15 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;

So we have the 'narrated event' of the Last Supper IN WHICH JESUS SAID DO THIS. Just as we have the 'narrated event' of the Last Supper in which Jesus WASH ONE ANOTHER'S FEET AS I HAVE DONE TO YOU.

If the first is an 'ordinance', based on your criteria the second is likewise.

Water Baptism:
We see the command (Matt 28), and we see the practice in the church (Acts 2, 8, 1 Cor 1, Gal 3, etc)

We see the narrated historical event of Jesus COMMANDING things concerning the making of disciples (including the fact they were teach others to observe all things whatsoever He commanded them).

Passover (or Lord's supper, whatever you wanna call it)
We see the command (Matt 26), and we see the practice in the church (1 Cor 11)

Feet washing
John 13
14 If I then, your Lord and Master, have washed your feet; ye also ought to wash one another's feet.
15 For I have given you an example, that ye should do as I have done to you.

Where is the practice in the church?

So then, a command from Jesus is invalid as a command UNLESS it is repeated by an apostle or seen being practiced in the church in some place other than the same book where the command was given?

First of all, who established this rule? Upon what authority?

Second of all, Paul only mentioned the Lord's Supper in order to correct an abuse of it. Suppose the Corinthians had been in the will of God. Then we would have no mention of the Lord's Supper whatsoever except in those 'narrations of events' you seem to disparage.

Third, the fact the widows under discussion had washed the saints' feet, as opposed to strangers, is yet additional evidence it was an 'ordinance of the church' as opposed to an ordinary act of mere hospitality or duty common to social custom of the day.

In any event, foot washing is commanded by Jesus, to His disciples, to do to one another. Thus, it is a distinctly Christian practice, commanded by Christ, instituted at the Last Supper.

If however, you stay with the intent of the "ordinance,"

The intent of the command is stated by the Lord - 'wash one another's feet'. He did it, as an EXAMPLE.

Just as He submitted to baptism, AS AN EXAMPLE. An example for what? For us to be baptised. Just so with foot washing.

[Real Realism]

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Real Realism

That is definitely not what Jesus had in mind. I mean, look, she's got earrings and short hair fer cryin out loud!!!

[Real Realism]

Whoops!