Shekinah and Jesus

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

No. Old thing. See the scriptures.

The concept of God's glory in the temple is biblical and if its in the kabbala that is irrerlevent.

The Kabbalah also teaches about Elohim Yhwh. Guilt by association is a logical fallacy.

Its sad how many can't see the forest for the trees.

Talmud is not Kabbala

Prax, seems to me you are more concerned in winning an argument than dealing with the questions posed to you. So, allow me to try this again.

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

How is it a Biblical topic if the word isn't used in the Bible?

You end your post with information found in the Talmud?

Should Christians use the Talmud to gather teaching?

I also have a second question...

How much do you know about the subject of the Shekinah, Kabbalah, the Talmud, the Zohar, and Rabbinical Judaism outside of Goggle searches online?

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

Prax, seems to me you are more concerned in winning an argument than dealing with the questions posed to you. So, allow me to try this again.



I also have a second question...

How much do you know about the subject of the Shekinah, Kabbalah, the Talmud, the Zohar, and Rabbinical Judaism outside of Goggle searches online?

The Talmud is NOT the Zohar and I know plenty. I believe it was a middle age fabrication.

What THIS topic is about has nothing to do with the Kabbalah as I already said dozens of times.

The subject in THIS thread is NOT the Shekinah of the Kabbalah nor Metatron nor Yhwh nor Elohim nor anything else the Kabbalah teaches on.

It's sad that none of you want to discuss what the bible teaches about God's presence/dwelling and obfuscate what this topic was about.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

Prax, seems to me you are more concerned in winning an argument than dealing with the questions posed to you. So, allow me to try this again.

I didn't start an argument. You did. This topic has NOTHING at all to do with the Kabbalah. I don't know how many times that needs to be said.

The Talmud is NOT Kabblah.

http://ohr.edu/ask_db/ask_main.php/233/Q3/

[KeptByTheWord]

Prax and EB... seems to me that neither one of you like to lose an argument...

[navygoat1998]

Originally Posted by KeptByTheWord

Prax and EB... seems to me that neither one of you like to lose an argument...

[Praxeas]

There is no argument. It's a topic about God's presence dwelling here in the OT and in Christ in the NT.

He wants to hijack the thread and make it an argument. Don't you guys see? We never even started discussing the topic yet because they hijacked it.

This topic never was about the Kabbalah.

[Praxeas]

Many people don't realize John was not a greek writing from a Greek mindset. He was a JEW writing from a Jewish mindset.

Jesus also was a Jew and He communicated TO Jews in a way those Jews would understand.

Joh 1:14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Greek word for Dwelt is Skenoo

sn The Greek word translated took up residence (σκηνόω, skēnoō) alludes to the OT tabernacle, where the Shekinah, the visible glory of God’s presence, resided. The author is suggesting that this glory can now be seen in Jesus (note the following verse). The verb used here may imply that the Shekinah glory that once was found in the tabernacle has taken up residence in the person of Jesus. Cf. also John 2:19–21. The Word became flesh. This verse constitutes the most concise statement of the incarnation in the New Testament.

Biblical Studies Press. (2006). The NET Bible First Edition Notes (Jn 1:14). Biblical Studies Press.

Compare

Rev 15:8 and the sanctuary was filled with smoke from the glory of God and from his power, and no one could enter the sanctuary until the seven plagues of the seven angels were finished.

Exo 40:34 Then the cloud covered the tent of meeting, and the glory of the LORD filled the tabernacle.

1Ki 8:10 And when the priests came out of the Holy Place, a cloud filled the house of the LORD,
1Ki 8:11 so that the priests could not stand to minister because of the cloud, for the glory of the LORD filled the house of the LORD.
1Ki 8:12 Then Solomon said, "The LORD has said that he would dwell in thick darkness.
1Ki 8:13 I have indeed built you an exalted house, a place for you to dwell in forever."


The Manifest Presence of God. That is what this was supposed to be about. Sadly people have more interest in arguing over words than discussing what the bible says nowadays.

[Revelationist]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

It's sad that none of you want to discuss what the bible teaches about God's presence/dwelling and obfuscate what this topic was about.

I don't think your understanding . It's not that they don't want to discuss gods presence in the Old Testiment, it's just that we don't want to blend Gods presence with the mother of God.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Revelationist

I don't think your understanding . It's not that they don't want to discuss gods presence in the Old Testiment, it's just that we don't want to blend Gods presence with the mother of God.

I never DID blend it with the Mother of God.

I made that clear over and over that the topic HERE is not the Kabbalah.

That's my point. Yet you guys never want to discuss the topic. You want to discuss how the Kabbalah uses the term and force that into this discussion.

That's like taking what the Kabbalah teaches about God (Elohim) and when someone wants to discuss what the bible says about Elohim, you avoid it and harp on what the Kabbalah teaches on God.

The word Shekinah comes from a Hebrew word for "dwell". It was coined to refer to the PRESENCE OF GOD such as the verse I just posted.

It was the Kabbalists that later added their own spin on it, just as they did with Wisdom and Sophia and even Yhwh and other biblical concepts or terms.

But the word Shekina means "dwelling". It does NOT mean "Mother of God".

Although the word “Shekinah” does not occur in the Bible, the root škn occurs not only in the verb (“dwell”), but also in the noun miškān (“dwelling place,” “tabernacle”) and the name Shecaniah (“Yahweh dwells”; e.g., 1 Ch. 3:21f). The promise that God would dwell with mankind goes back to Noah’s blessing in Gen. 9:27: “God enlarge Japheth, may he [God] dwell in the tents of Shem” (cf. RSV “and let him [Japheth] dwell …”). The Aramaic Tg Onkelos renders this verse: “He will cause his Shekinah to dwell in the dwelling-place of Shem.”

. Vol. 4: The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia, Revised. 1979–1988 (G. W. Bromiley, Ed.) (466). Wm. B. Eerdmans.

I 've made it very very clear, repeating it over and over that THIS topic has NOTHING to do with concept found in the Kabbalah.

[Praxeas]

BTW if it's not that you guys don't want to discuss the presence of God and how it's used in the bible, how come nobody has after being told over and over and over that what THIS topic is about is NOT how Shekina is used in the Kabbalah?

Yeah, said it before but that proverb is true. Some can't see the forest for the trees.