Question for Apostolics

[Sasha]

Originally Posted by Sasha

John the Baptist was filled with the Holy Ghost from the womb. If tongues was evidence, how did John receive it?

Nobody has an answer for this?

[KWSS1976]

Sasha people get hung up on, this in John 7:39..See even though the bible says he was filled from his mothers womb, folks run to this verse to defend the tongues. Now here is the question is there 2 holyghost/spirit, cause the bible clearly states he was filled, so which holyghost/spirit did John have??

[B]39 But this He spoke concerning the Spirit, whom those believing[a] in Him would receive; for the Holy Spirit was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified.

[Sasha]

Originally Posted by KWSS1976

Sasha people get hung up on, this in John 7:39..See even though the bible says he was filled from his mothers womb, folks run to this verse to defend the tongues. Now here is the question is there 2 holyghost/spirit, cause the bible clearly states he was filled, so which holyghost/spirit did John have??

[B]39 But this He spoke concerning the Spirit, whom those believing[a] in Him would receive; for the Holy Spirit was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified.

That is interesting indeed, and an argument I've heard but nobody seems able to answer. I believe that a lot of the Bible is open to interpretation in some areas, but this one I don't understand at all. King David is also said to have had the Holy Spirit in him also.

[KWSS1976]

Yup and you want find a answer cause its one of the grey areas, cause if you say he did not have the holyspirit you go against what the bible says..So its a Catch 22.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Sasha

John the Baptist was filled with the Holy Ghost from the womb. If tongues was evidence, how did John receive it?

1) Nobody says we receive the Spirit by speaking in tongues

2) Nobody says tongues was the evidence before Pentecost.

3) Nobody knows whether John ever spoke in tongues.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by KWSS1976

Sasha people get hung up on, this in John 7:39..See even though the bible says he was filled from his mothers womb, folks run to this verse to defend the tongues. Now here is the question is there 2 holyghost/spirit, cause the bible clearly states he was filled, so which holyghost/spirit did John have??

[B]39 But this He spoke concerning the Spirit, whom those believing[a] in Him would receive; for the Holy Spirit was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified.

John is speaking parenthetically in hindsight (having witnessed the initial outpouring) that this event had not occurred yet.

[KWSS1976]

I guess what Sasha is trying to get at is according to the Apostolics you can't have the Holyspirit/ghost without speaking in tongues, so they are just wanting a explination from them on how come the bible stated John was filled in the womb..

[Sasha]

Originally Posted by KWSS1976

Yup and you want find a answer cause its one of the grey areas, cause if you say he did not have the holyspirit you go against what the bible says..So its a Catch 22.

Well, not exactly. I'm wanting to know by those who believe one must speak in tongues as to how John The Baptist received it in the womb.

[Sasha]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

1) Nobody says we receive the Spirit by speaking in tongues

2) Nobody says tongues was the evidence before Pentecost.

3) Nobody knows whether John ever spoke in tongues.

Right.

[Sasha]

Originally Posted by KWSS1976

I guess what Sasha is trying to get at is according to the Apostolics you can't have the Holyspirit/ghost without speaking in tongues, so they are just wanting a explination from them on how come the bible stated John was filled in the womb..

Right.