[Zechariah_14_5]

Originally Posted by Lafon

I have managed to arrive at this conclusion based upon the manner in which I believe the following scriptural passage should be interpreted (there are others, of course, but for the sake of this discussion allow me to utilize just this one):

And it shall come to pass in that day, that the Lord shall set his hand again the second time to recover the remnant of his people, which shall be left, from Assyria, and from Egypt, and from Pathros, and from Cush, and from Elam, and from Shinar, and from Hamath, and from the islands of the sea. (Isaiah 11:11 KJV)

And yet the scriptures are not without a witness that this was fulfilled at Pentecost when the remnant of Israel was regathered into one body (nation) through the baptism of the spirit.

And [when] this sound occurred, the crowd gathered and was in confusion, because each one was hearing them speaking in his own language. And they were astounded and astonished, saying, “Behold, are not all these who are speaking Galileans? And how do we hear, each one [of us], in our own native language? Parthians and Medes and Elamites and those residing [in] Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya toward Cyrene, and the Romans who were in town, both Jews and proselytes, Cretans and Arabs—we hear them speaking in our [own] languages the great deeds of God!” Acts 2:6-11

What rationale and warrant do we have to reject the obvious witness of scripture in order to speculate and project a prophecy's fulfillment into the future?