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Originally Posted by Chan
It was sufficient to address what you asked.
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No, it wasn't. No analogy is sufficient to address God, Chan.
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Absolutely. But "revealed" does not mean "became," though you seem to be trying to equate the two.
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OH! Let me see if I've got it right now:
it was the person/being of God that was revealed, but that person/being did not BECOME anything (eg: a man). Yes? No?
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No, GOD is the one being revealed. HE is being revealed by/through Jesus Christ, His only begotten Son.
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Then the Lord was just a vehicle to "show" that part of God (logos) that we could (or, maybe, that He would "let" us) know?
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No, because the various words translated that way may not be referring to YHVH. Some of the Greek words translated God sometimes mean divinity, deity or divine nature.
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Are there certain ones you'd agree do identify the Father, YHVH? If so, could you give me some examples?
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The problem in the translation of John 1:1 is the phrase translated "was with God."
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What about the last part of that verse: "
and the word was God"?
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In other words, the divinity/deity of the logos is the divinity/deity of God and not a separate divinity/deity
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"God" as in YHVH?
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I know that the logos that became flesh and dwelt among us is none other than Jesus Christ - based on the context of the passage - but coming to that conclusion is an act of INTERPRETING scripture, which is not the same thing as saying the Bible actually says something.
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Point taken. I just think it's juvenile to use the tactic you did, because it is clear from
John 1:1-14 that the Person being spoken of is Jesus Christ. That was my point.