Accepting Him or Rejecting Him; Jesus Name Baptism and Pentecostal Trinity Churches

[OGIA]

Originally Posted by Chan

It was sufficient to address what you asked.

No, it wasn't. No analogy is sufficient to address God, Chan.

Absolutely. But "revealed" does not mean "became," though you seem to be trying to equate the two.

OH! Let me see if I've got it right now: it was the person/being of God that was revealed, but that person/being did not BECOME anything (eg: a man). Yes? No?

No, GOD is the one being revealed. HE is being revealed by/through Jesus Christ, His only begotten Son.

Then the Lord was just a vehicle to "show" that part of God (logos) that we could (or, maybe, that He would "let" us) know?

No, because the various words translated that way may not be referring to YHVH. Some of the Greek words translated God sometimes mean divinity, deity or divine nature.

Are there certain ones you'd agree do identify the Father, YHVH? If so, could you give me some examples?

The problem in the translation of John 1:1 is the phrase translated "was with God."

What about the last part of that verse: "and the word was God"?

In other words, the divinity/deity of the logos is the divinity/deity of God and not a separate divinity/deity

"God" as in YHVH?

I know that the logos that became flesh and dwelt among us is none other than Jesus Christ - based on the context of the passage - but coming to that conclusion is an act of INTERPRETING scripture, which is not the same thing as saying the Bible actually says something.

Point taken. I just think it's juvenile to use the tactic you did, because it is clear from John 1:1-14 that the Person being spoken of is Jesus Christ. That was my point.