How was He baptized?

[Esther]

I was thinking recently of the thread where SE states that if you are not following Acts 2:38 you are lost.

I got to thinking about Jesus baptism. How was He baptized as the "forumla" of Acts 2:38 was yet to be given.

Was He baptized under repentance only, as John's baptism?

Just curious if anyone else has thought of this?

What and how did you come to your conclusion?

[pelathais]

Originally Posted by Esther

I was thinking recently of the thread where SE states that if you are not following Acts 2:38 you are lost.

I got to thinking about Jesus baptism. How was He baptized as the "forumla" of Acts 2:38 was yet to be given.

Was He baptized under repentance only, as John's baptism?

Just curious if anyone else has thought of this?

What and how did you come to your conclusion?

John's baptism was of "repentence for the remission of sins." Jesus Himself was baptized to "fulfill all righteousness."

So, everyone who was baptized by John - in faith - received remission of sins. Jesus Himself, of course, did no sin but provided an example for all of us to follow. The disciples of Apollos in Acts were rebaptized by Paul to join them with the Christian community - not just so they could receive the remission of sins. They already had remsission by John's baptism.

Christian baptism in Jesus name accomplishes something more than John's baptism. What that "more" is exactly is honestly a little hazy to me. However, it's clearly not "more remission of sins" since John's baptism accomplished the same same thing.

I guess one point that we might observe is that it is not the phonetic pronounciation of "Jesus name" that accomplishes the remission of sins, since John's baptism accomplishes the same remission. It may also be that the early church practiced multiple baptisms on the pattern of the Jewish cleansings in the mikveh.

[brotherjason]

Originally Posted by pelathais

It may also be that the early church practiced multiple baptisms on the pattern of the Jewish cleansings in the mikveh.

But why would Paul write one Lord one faith and on baptism if they practiced multiple baptisms? That's a question, not a pounce!

[Sam]

Originally Posted by brotherjason

But why would Paul write one Lord one faith and on baptism if they practiced multiple baptisms? That's a question, not a pounce!

For the Christian, there are more than one baptism.
Hebrews 6:1-3 speaks of the elementary principles of Christ.
One thing listed there is baptisms (plural).
There is a baptism/immersion into the body of Christ; there is a baptism/immersion in water and there is a baptism/immersion in the Spirit.

The one baptism mentioned in Ephesians 4:5 is (in my opinion) the same one Paul also speaks of in 1 Corinthians 12:13 and Galatians 3:26-29. Water baptism is a separate subsequent experience which is an outward symbol of the experience that placed us into Christ.

[OneAccord]

Originally Posted by brotherjason

But why would Paul write one Lord one faith and on baptism if they practiced multiple baptisms? That's a question, not a pounce!

When Paul said "...one baptism..." was he referring to water baptism?

Eph 4:4 [There is] one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling;

Eph 4:5 One Lord, one faith, one baptism,

It would seem to me that this verse refers to the Baptism of the Holy Ghost, rather than water baptism. Compare to 1 Cor 12:13.

[DanielR]

Originally Posted by OneAccord

When Paul said "...one baptism..." was he referring to water baptism?

Eph 4:4 [There is] one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling;

Eph 4:5 One Lord, one faith, one baptism,

It would seem to me that this verse refers to the Baptism of the Holy Ghost, rather than water baptism. Compare to 1 Cor 12:13.

That's always been my take on that passage.

[Steve Epley]

When John baptized Jesus he put the Name in the water and in the water is where we are buried with Him and recieve His Holy Name.

[pelathais]

Originally Posted by brotherjason

But why would Paul write one Lord one faith and on baptism if they practiced multiple baptisms? That's a question, not a pounce!

No Bro! Don't be timid - pounce away! And my answer is ... uhm ... I don't really know for certain.

Apollos and the disciples he had made were baptized twice "for the remission of sins!" If "all" that baptism in Jesus name is intended to do is to remit sins, then John's baptism alone was sufficient for the same purpose (Mark 1:4). Apparently Paul had the idea that Christian baptism in Jesus name was important for other reasons as well. In any case, we have two water baptisms "for the remission" of sins (and I'm leaving off the argument about what "for" means).

I also have a question about Ephesians 4:5. Is Paul saying that there is only "one water baptism permitted" for each individual believer? Notice that he doesn't mention water specifically and that the context is established earlier by several statements including, "the unity of the Spirit." Couldn't the "one baptism" be a reference to "one Spirit baptism" (1 Corinthians 12:13)?

That is, "we are all baptized into one body by one Spirit..." 1 Corinthians 12:13 seems to be more a parallel of what Paul is saying in Ephesians 4:5 than Acts 2:38 or any other reference to water baptism. "One Lord, one faith and one baptism..." and "... one body by one Spirit..."

[Esther]

Originally Posted by pelathais

John's baptism was of "repentence for the remission of sins." Jesus Himself was baptized to "fulfill all righteousness."

So, everyone who was baptized by John - in faith - received remission of sins. Jesus Himself, of course, did no sin but provided an example for all of us to follow. The disciples of Apollos in Acts were rebaptized by Paul to join them with the Christian community - not just so they could receive the remission of sins. They already had remsission by John's baptism.

Christian baptism in Jesus name accomplishes something more than John's baptism. What that "more" is exactly is honestly a little hazy to me. However, it's clearly not "more remission of sins" since John's baptism accomplished the same same thing.

I guess one point that we might observe is that it is not the phonetic pronounciation of "Jesus name" that accomplishes the remission of sins, since John's baptism accomplishes the same remission. It may also be that the early church practiced multiple baptisms on the pattern of the Jewish cleansings in the mikveh.

You pose an interesting thought here.

[Sister Alvear]

was not Jesus baptized when people were yet under the law? I think Grace only began after His ressurection.