Should we still observe the sabbath?

good samaritan · #10 08-18-2022, 04:54 AM

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Originally Posted by Esaias

A closer look at Galatians, part 1.

Let's look more closely at what the issue(s) was/were in Galatia, shall we?

O foolish Galatians, who hath bewitched you, that ye should not obey the truth, before whose eyes Jesus Christ hath been evidently set forth, crucified among you? This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh? Have ye suffered so many things in vain? if it be yet in vain. He therefore that ministereth to you the Spirit, and worketh miracles among you, doeth he it by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
(Gal 3:1-5)

The issue is receiving the Spirit (ie becoming a Christian, being "saved") by either the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith. This is the same issue addressed by Paul throughout Romans. The subject is NOT "as a Christian are you supposed to obey the commandments of God, or no?" The subject is "does justification come by the works of the law or by faith?"

For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them. But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith. And the law is not of faith: but, The man that doeth them shall live in them.
(Gal 3:10-12)

What does this mean? Does this mean that the man who obeys God is cursed? NO. It means that the man who seeks to be justified by his deeds ("works of the law") is under the curse, BECAUSE "Cursed is everyone who does not continue in ALL THINGS which are written in the book of the law to do them." In other words, if a person is going to be justified LEGALLY (by the works of the law) he can NEVER EVER VIOLATE ANY LAW OF GOD WHATSOEVER. If you go to court, charged with a crime (violating the law), to be "proven innocent", that is, to be justified legally, you have to show that you did not in fact violate the law. Granted, the American legal system demands the prosecution show beyond a reasonable doubt that you DID violate the law, but IF they show you did in fact violate the law, you CANNOT BE JUSTIFIED or acquitted. So it is with God, if you did in fact violate the law of God you cannot be justified. The only way to get justified is to receive a PARDON, which means it is acknowledged that you did in fact violate the law but the powers that be are going to FORGIVE the transgression and set aside the punishment due.

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The law of Moses was a legal system that condemned us to death. Christ paid that price and we are not to go back to that legal system. We are now to walk in newness of life. Principles contained in those laws are forever but the laws themselves are fulfilled by the work of Jesus Christ.

So anybody seeking to be justified by the law (that is, by the deeds of the law, seeking to be declared righteous or innocent due to their performance of the law) will fail, because the very law they seek to be justified by condemns them for their violations of the law. They have in fact violated the law, "all have sinned". So they are under the curse (the punishment, the condemnation, the sentence due to transgressors).

Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree: That the blessing of Abraham might come on the Gentiles through Jesus Christ; that we might receive the promise of the Spirit through faith.
(Gal 3:13-14)

Now notice what we have in fact been redeemed from. It is "the curse of the law". We have not been redeemed from any moral obligation to obey God. If you are charged with a crime, and are given a pardon, you have been redeemed from the punishment of law. Does this mean you are now free to go out and break the law from now on? OF COURSE NOT. It doesn't mean you are "Free from the law" in the sense of being free from obligation to be law abiding (obedient). It means you have been freed from the PUNISHMENT DUE TO CONVICTED TRANSGRESSORS.

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Morality is the basis or the principles the law is built upon. So of course, we still have moral obligations. No one is saying we don’t have any moral obligations. The whole issue is that we are no longer in bondage to keeping the over 600 commandments of the letter which sabbatical days are commanded.

Keep this in mind: we have been redeemed from the CURSE of the law. We have not been redeemed from the moral obligation to obey God.

Brethren, I speak after the manner of men; Though it be but a man's covenant, yet if it be confirmed, no man disannulleth, or addeth thereto. Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ. And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect. For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise.
(Gal 3:15-18)

A promise was made to Abraham and to his seed. This was a covenant God made with Abraham in Christ. "The law" came 400 hundred years later. Does this mean that prior to the coming of this "law" that there were no commandments of God? NO:

And I will make thy seed to multiply as the stars of heaven, and will give unto thy seed all these countries; and in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.
(Gen 26:4-5)

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The commands and laws of God that Abraham obeyed where not the Ten Commandments or the law of Moses. Just because the Hebrew word Torah is used for laws does not mean it is talking about the same laws given to Moses. There is not one example of Abraham acknowledging Ten Commandments or keeping a Sabbath. The command of God where to “go”, offer Isaac, send away Ishmael, etc.. but there is no scripture that proves that the law of Moses was a repeated law already given to Abraham.

So then what "law" was added 430 years after the promise made to Abraham? It is not the laws of God, that is, His commandments, statutes, His "charge". It was the covenant made at Sinai.

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What??? The law was not the law, but was a sinaitic covenant?

We see now that the discussion is not about moral obligation to obey God's commandments, statutes, or laws, but is about obligation to the Sinaitic covenant. The inheritance (receiving the promise made to Abraham in Christ) is not "through the law". That is to say, it is not through the Sinaitic Covenant. This does not mean that inheritance of the promise rules out obedience to God's commandments. It means that inheritance is not based upon the performance of the Sinaitic law covenant. Which is to say it is not by the deeds or works of the law that one is justified (declared righteous, declared to inherit the promise given to Abraham). This was already covered and made clear just above, and clearly does NOT mean Christians are given license to dispense with the revealed will of God any more than a criminal being pardoned and given a place in society means they may henceforth dispense with obedience to the law of the land.

So you are saying the Sinaitic covenant is not Gods law. Well, The sabbath is part of the sinaitic covenant and not the promise of Abraham.