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Deep Waters 'Deep Calleth Unto Deep ' -The place to go for Ministry discussions. Please keep it civil. Remember to discuss the issues, not each other.


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Old 05-26-2007, 08:49 AM
Brother Strange
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Originally Posted by Revelationist View Post
Yep, trying to clarify if the same holds true for all these scriptures. Because if it does, then the Bible has to be consistant, and this is what it must mean everywere these words apear. Right?
That is right.

The Word is consistent. It does not imply anything that it does not mean. There are no Roman armies seen in Revelation. There is no Nero, no Titus, no destruction of the old city of Jerusalem, no, not even in Ch. 11. No city of Rome and no destruction of an earthly temple can be found in Revelation anywhere...NOT THE EVEN MENTION OF 70AD.
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Old 05-26-2007, 09:26 AM
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Steve Epley Steve Epley is offline
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Originally Posted by Brother Strange View Post
That is right.

The Word is consistent. It does not imply anything that it does not mean. There are no Roman armies seen in Revelation. There is no Nero, no Titus, no destruction of the old city of Jerusalem, no, not even in Ch. 11. No city of Rome and no destruction of an earthly temple can be found in Revelation anywhere...NOT THE EVEN MENTION OF 70AD.
Elder Strange you are correct and the problem with their interpetation of "shortly come to pass" is that most scholars place the writing of Revelations around 90 ad TWENTY years beyond the so-called fulfilment of this prophecy. The quote many sources to seem they have scholarship but when investigated ALL their sources are quoting one source. The MAJORITY of scholarship has the book written AFTER the event took place. So it should have read according to these folks "they have ALREADY came to pass."
Next "this generation" is speaking of the JEWISH RACE not a particular time. Jesus is simply saying the Jewish RACE will be in existance UNTIL Jesus comes.
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Old 05-26-2007, 09:33 AM
Brother Strange
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Originally Posted by Steve Epley View Post
Elder Strange you are correct and the problem with their interpetation of "shortly come to pass" is that most scholars place the writing of Revelations around 90 ad TWENTY years beyond the so-called fulfilment of this prophecy. The quote many sources to seem they have scholarship but when investigated ALL their sources are quoting one source. The MAJORITY of scholarship has the book written AFTER the event took place. So it should have read according to these folks "they have ALREADY came to pass."
Next "this generation" is speaking of the JEWISH RACE not a particular time. Jesus is simply saying the Jewish RACE will be in existance UNTIL Jesus comes.
Elder,

As you already know, there are a number of linchpins to the Preterist doctrine, that if pulled would cause the entire theory to collapse in a junk heap.

First of all, as you said, if it were anyway possible for them to prove against all odds that Revelation was written prior to 70AD, their argument would be over and lost.

The along with their misunderstanding and deliberate twisting of "shortly come to pass," "at hand," and "this geneation," they have effectively done away with major portions of the Bible, relegating it to a dust heap of archival irrelevance.

I get upset when I see such violence inflicted upon the Word of God
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Old 05-26-2007, 12:16 PM
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mfblume mfblume is offline
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Originally Posted by Steve Epley View Post
Elder Strange you are correct and the problem with their interpetation of "shortly come to pass" is that most scholars place the writing of Revelations around 90 ad TWENTY years beyond the so-called fulfilment of this prophecy. The quote many sources to seem they have scholarship but when investigated ALL their sources are quoting one source. The MAJORITY of scholarship has the book written AFTER the event took place. So it should have read according to these folks "they have ALREADY came to pass."
Next "this generation" is speaking of the JEWISH RACE not a particular time. Jesus is simply saying the Jewish RACE will be in existance UNTIL Jesus comes.
GENERATION is never used any where in the bible to denote a race. Any where. All you can do is say IN THIS ONE CASE of Matthew 24 it is. Meanwhile, you have NO other verse in which it is plainly so. SHOW ME WHERE IT USED UNDISPUTEDLY.

And concerning AD90, or 96 more correctly, all that these alleged scholars stand upon is Irenaeus' nutty time issue, who also said Jesus died at 50, which accusation Bro Strange once also tried to refute to no avail.

Of course the race will be in existence when Jesus comes! lol. Who said it would not? What news is that to the disciples standing there listening to Jesus? Who would have thought that would NOT occur? It is what is irrelevant.

Folks, ya gotta admit Bro Strange is taking a real whooping in this debate!
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