Going To Trinity Churches ?

[LUKE2447]

Originally Posted by OnTheFritz

Again - you are stating opinion as fact. Why do we still acknowledge Matt 28:19 as part of the Bible that we hold as infallible? Should we remove it? Should we footnote it? Is it not understandable that many would find this an appropriate way to baptize?

Who says everyone agree in your views of Bibliology? God's Word is infallible does not equate to texts and interpolations don't happen. 1 John 5:7 is a perfect example.

SHould we remove it only matters to the individual and what they perceive is right in the text. Does our belief die with that ONE text? No! Our is backed up the WHOLE of the Word. Does F,S,HS die? Yes! As what would you have to stand on? The whole point is to stand on something the rest of the Bible does not teach is faulty ground. Considering everything...... Yes, it is false teaching as I see nobody doing anything in the name of the F,S, HS anywhere! So how can I do something in which I see no example? That is def a leap of faith.

[OnTheFritz]

Originally Posted by LUKE2447

Who says everyone agree in your views of Bibliology? God's Word is infallible does not equate to texts and interpolations don't happen. 1 John 5:7 is a perfect example.

SHould we remove it only matters to the individual and what they perceive is right in the text. Does our belief die with that ONE text? No! Our is backed up the WHOLE of the Word. Does F,S,HS die? Yes! As what would you have to stand on? The whole point is to stand on something the rest of the Bible does not teach is faulty ground. Considering everything...... Yes, it is false teaching as I see nobody doing anything in the name of the F,S, HS anywhere! So how can I do something in which I see no example? That is def a leap of faith.

Really? So we can choose to remove portions of the Bible based on our perceptions?

What would we have to stand on? The Words of Jesus.

That is a leap. To consider Matt 28:19 false teaching because an actual example of that particular form is not cited in the rest of the New Testament. Do you see an example of every command we are given in the Bible? And if not, do you disregard it?

When you do something "in the name" of someone, do you always speak their name before you do it? Sam had a good post earlier in the thread that deals with this issue.

I agree with much of what you say as well. I just get hung up on the evidence you use as support for your facts.

[LUKE2447]

Originally Posted by OnTheFritz

Really? So we can choose to remove portions of the Bible based on our perceptions?

What would we have to stand on? The Words of Jesus.

That is a leap. To consider Matt 28:19 false teaching because an actual example of that particular form is not cited in the rest of the New Testament. Do you see an example of every command we are given in the Bible? And if not, do you disregard it?

When you do something "in the name" of someone, do you always speak their name before you do it? Sam had a good post earlier in the thread that deals with this issue.

I agree with much of what you say as well. I just get hung up on the evidence you use as support for your facts.

WHo said that is the Bible? JEsus? God! Got scripture? Got the originals? My evidence is the what the whole says. Not just "one" scripture verse! Also I have much more I could add but am a little busy as this will probably be my last post for a while. Have you read anything abut MAtt 28:19? That would be a good place to start.

Also yes, translations remove portions all the time do to textual evidence which is perception.