John 14:9 is Jesus - God the Father?

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Iron_Bladder

Becasue the Father is another person to the Son, look I have the father indwelling me (John 14:23) but becasue I am a different person to the father, that makes the Father a different person to me - I'n NOT God the Father. So likewise the Father indwelling the Son and the Son indwelling the Father, does not make the Son the Father.

You didn't even answer my last post. Yes we all know in YOUR view the Father and Son are two different persons....though you fudge on that and say they can be manifestations. But a manifestation is not a person. Rather a person manifests Himself. Who is manifesting Himself as the Father, Son and Holy Ghost then if that is the case

Originally Posted by Praxeas

You didn't even answer my last post. Yes we all know in YOUR view the Father and Son are two different persons....though you fudge on that and say they can be manifestations. But a manifestation is not a person. Rather a person manifests Himself. Who is manifesting Himself as the Father, Son and Holy Ghost then if that is the case

The Son is manifested as the SON Jesus Christ, the Father and Holy Spirit not being seen are never 'manifested.'

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Iron_Bladder

The Son is manifested as the SON Jesus Christ, the Father and Holy Spirit not being seen are never 'manifested.'

You still did not answer my last post nor do you explain what a manifestation is compared to a person

Originally Posted by Iron_Bladder

The Son is manifested as the SON Jesus Christ, the Father and Holy Spirit not being seen are never 'manifested.'

Yet 1 Timothy 3:16 says it was God that was manifest in the flesh and not "the Son."

Originally Posted by Chan

Yet 1 Timothy 3:16 says it was God that was manifest in the flesh and not "the Son."

Only in the KJV, the more reliable texts state: 'he sppeared in a body.' Either way neither version states that God the Father appeared in a body, the context is the Son incarnating and as for the Son being God, other verses clearly state this i.e.: Hebrews 1:8 and John 20:28.

Originally Posted by Iron_Bladder

Only in the KJV, the more reliable texts state: 'he sppeared in a body.' Either way neither version states that God the Father appeared in a body, the context is the Son incarnating and as for the Son being God, other verses clearly state this i.e.: Hebrews 1:8 and John 20:28.

Since the Greek word used is theos, there is no valid reason to translate it "he."

Originally Posted by Chan

Since the Greek word used is theos, there is no valid reason to translate it "he."

It's not, the Son is addressed as God (Theos) at hebrews 1:8 and also at John 20:28. How sad that you and the other Oneness folk here argue against the deity of the Son and the fact that the Son as the Son possesses every divine attribute.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Iron_Bladder

It's not, the Son is addressed as God (Theos) at hebrews 1:8 and also at John 20:28. How sad that you and the other Oneness folk here argue against the deity of the Son and the fact that the Son as the Son possesses every divine attribute.

So sad yet again...it seems you are still not reading what you are posting to.

The topic was 1tim 3:16 and he says he is a Trinitarian....Your replies are just strangely incoherent with the subject you are quoting

Originally Posted by Iron_Bladder

It's not, the Son is addressed as God (Theos) at hebrews 1:8 and also at John 20:28. How sad that you and the other Oneness folk here argue against the deity of the Son and the fact that the Son as the Son possesses every divine attribute.

First of all, I'm not oneness; I'm a trinitarian who adheres to the Nicene-Constantinopolitan Creed of 381 A.D. (the Orthodox version, not the Roman Catholic/Protestant version). Second, it isn't as the Son that Jesus is being referred to as God in the quote from the Old Testament. The ONE who became the Son is, in fact, God. What you seem to be missing here is that Jesus is not ONLY the Son. There is more to Jesus than His being the "only begotten Son" of God and the fact that the Son is begotten necessitates that the Son cannot be eternal since the begotten indicates a beginning point. Jesus, as God, is eternal. Jesus, as the Son, had a beginning. And, yes, the Greek word used in 1 Timothy 3:16 is theos!

Of course, what you mentioning Hebrews 1:8 and John 20:28 have to do with our discussion of 1 Timothy 3:16, I don't know.

Originally Posted by Chan

First of all, I'm not oneness; I'm a trinitarian who adheres to the Nicene-Constantinopolitan Creed of 381 A.D. (the Orthodox version, not the Roman Catholic/Protestant version). Second, it isn't as the Son that Jesus is being referred to as God in the quote from the Old Testament. The ONE who became the Son is, in fact, God. What you seem to be missing here is that Jesus is not ONLY the Son. There is more to Jesus than His being the "only begotten Son" of God and the fact that the Son is begotten necessitates that the Son cannot be eternal since the begotten indicates a beginning point. Jesus, as God, is eternal. Jesus, as the Son, had a beginning. And, yes, the Greek word used in 1 Timothy 3:16 is theos!

Of course, what you mentioning Hebrews 1:8 and John 20:28 have to do with our discussion of 1 Timothy 3:16, I don't know.

Firstly, you are not a Trinitarian but an anti-Trinitarian as you statement proves: (Quote): 'The ONE who became the Son is, in fact, God.' Trinitarians do not beleive that God or anyone else for that matter BECAME the Son.

Secondly, you are pure Oneness as this statement of yours proves: (Quote): 'Jesus, as God, is eternal. Jesus, as the Son, had a beginning.'