Quote:
Romans chapter one is clearly dealing with God’s wrath being poured out on a group of unspecified Gentiles who were participating in idolatrous worship, were haters of God, knew God but did not glorify Him as God, and who were full of fornication, wickedness, envy, murder, and pride. Does this accurately describe our family and church members who are homosexual? Does this accurately describe the numerous anointed musicians, singers, and preachers that God has used in spite of their homosexuality?
To loosely place all homosexuals in the same category as the Gentiles mentioned in Romans 1 is an insult to those homosexuals who love God, worship and acknowledge Him as God, and are either living a life of celibacy or are in a monogamous covenant relationship.
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The above is evidence of an entirely faulty manner of reading
Romans 1.
Romans 1 is not written in this manner described above. It is listing why idolatry was associated with homosexuality. It is not saying all homosexuals are so due to idolatry. God gives a general sweep over the entire thought of homosexuality and calls it vile affection, and state of living that God considered punishment to which he gives up an idolator. Whether a homosexual claims to love God or not, the bible said homosexualilty is a vile affection.
So we cannot take
Romans 1 and claim it is only speaking about homoseuxals who also are idolators and hatred towards God. Paul stated that God saw people's idolatry and wickedness and gave them up to vile affections.
The vile affections were vile affections with or without the idolatry. The vile affections were completely aside from the idolatry, as a form of lifestyle that was considered punishment for people who did commit hatred towards God and idolatry. The vile affection has to exist apart from idolatry, in other words, for God to take idolators and "give them up" to those vile affections. In other words, the vile affections have to be considered vile in and of themselves in order for Paul to write the way the did and say men with men and women with women was what God gave people over to as a form of punishment to them.
If homosexuailty was innocent in and of itself, then why in the world would God ever give someone over to it as though it?
What punishment would there be in that? It would be as silly as saying, God judged idolators so He gave them over to a kindness toward puppy dogs. God does not give people over to what would be innocent activities when he deals with sinners.
But, generally speaking, homsoexuality as a vile affection is classed amongst the following:
God also gave them up to uncleanness
God gave them up unto vile affections
God gave them over to a reprobate mind
Anything innocent in and of itself would not be something God "gives one up" to.
Paul said homosexuality is "dishonour their own bodies between themselves:" That is totally apart from idolatry, again. He would not use that language if homosexuality was innocent.
There is nothing physically different in the activity of homosexuals apart from having ever been idolators and the activity of homosexuality that was a result from God giving people over to it. To speak of defiling their own bodies between themselves, and the manner in which Paul speaks of this in this context, simply indicates the act itself is ungodly, whether idolatry was involved or not.
Preach it Bro...I actually believe this!
Hybrid Mode
