"Easter" was not a pagan word in 1611

[Sean]

Contents
1 Acts 12:4 in Greek and English
2 Easter is not a pagan word2.1 Myth 1: the KJV translators used "Easter" to refer to a pagan festival
2.2 Myth 2: "Easter" comes from the goddess named "Ishtar" or "Astarte"
2.3 Myth 3: "Easter" comes from the goddess named "Eostre"2.3.1

"Easter" means "dawn"
2.3.2 The resurrection morning = "dawn" par excellence
2.3.3 The resurrection = spiritual "dawn"
2.3.4 The etymology of "Easter" is similar to that of Aνατελλω

2.4 Myth 4: "Easter" is tainted by residual pagan etymology
2.5 Myth 5: "Easter eggs" and "Easter bunnies" discredit Easter
2.6 Myth 6: The calculation of the date of Easter is pagan

3 The KJV is correct in having "Easter" at Acts 12:43.1 "Pascha" means Easter today
3.2 "Pascha" meant Easter in the first century
3.3 "Pascha" meant Easter to Luke, the narrator of Acts 12:

Read more......

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Praxeas]

Old English Easterdæg, from Eastre (Northumbrian Eostre), from Proto-Germanic *austron-, "dawn," also the name of a goddess of fertility and spring, perhaps originally of sunrise, whose feast was celebrated at the spring equinox, from *aust- "east, toward the sunrise" (compare east), from PIE *aus- (1) "to shine" (especially of the dawn); see aurora.
http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=easter

[mfblume]

Old English Easterdæg, from Eastre (Northumbrian Eostre), from Proto-Germanic *austron-, "dawn," also the name of a goddess of fertility and spring, perhaps originally of sunrise, whose feast was celebrated at the spring equinox, from *aust- "east, toward the sunrise" (compare east), from PIE *aus- (1) "to shine" (especially of the dawn); see aurora.
http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=easter

Amen. And pascha means Passover. The actual meaning of the word Passover has nothing to do with dawn. Lol.

[mfblume]

Pascha is Greek transliteration for the Hebrew word for Passover.

pesach
peh'-sakh

From pasach, a pretermission, that is, exemption; used only technically of the Jewish Passover (the festival or the victim): - passover (offering).

The word itself has Nothing to do with implying dawn no matter how one tries to insert dawn into it from various events. We're talking about the actual word and its meaning. We cannot insert events into the word's definition to try to justify an alien word that the word itself does not mean.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Old English Easterdæg, from Eastre (Northumbrian Eostre), from Proto-Germanic *austron-, "dawn," also the name of a goddess of fertility and spring, perhaps originally of sunrise, whose feast was celebrated at the spring equinox, from *aust- "east, toward the sunrise" (compare east), from PIE *aus- (1) "to shine" (especially of the dawn); see aurora.
http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=easter

Amen. And pascha means Passover. The actual meaning of the word Passover has nothing to do with dawn. Lol.

Pascha is Greek transliteration for the Hebrew word for Passover.

pesach
peh'-sakh

From pasach, a pretermission, that is, exemption; used only technically of the Jewish Passover (the festival or the victim): - passover (offering).

The word itself has Nothing to do with implying dawn no matter how one tries to insert dawn into it from various events. We're talking about the actual word and its meaning. We cannot insert events into the word's definition to try to justify an alien word that the word itself does not mean.

:highfive

[FlamingZword]

Old English Easterdæg, from Eastre (Northumbrian Eostre), from Proto-Germanic *austron-, "dawn," also the name of a goddess of fertility and spring, perhaps originally of sunrise, whose feast was celebrated at the spring equinox, from *aust- "east, toward the sunrise" (compare east), from PIE *aus- (1) "to shine" (especially of the dawn); see aurora.
http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=easter

Sorry to burst your bubble, but the KJV Only crowd live in a fantasy wonderland where queen Gail Riplinger can make a word mean whatever she wants it to mean, never mind the dictionary. The Mad Hatter AKA Sean is a loyal pet subject of the queen. :D

[Sean]

Obviously the KJV attacker crowd did not read the link...LOL


"Easter" is etymologically related to "east" (the direction) and refers to the "rising" of our Lord.

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Sean]

Christ's resurrection is a "dawn" also in a spiritual sense because that is when the light of salvation rose (resurrected) from the darkness of death. The following passages compare Christ to the sun rising from darkness:
"Arise, shine; for thy light is come, and the glory of the LORD is risen upon thee. For, behold, the darkness shall cover the earth, and gross darkness the people: but the LORD shall arise upon thee, and his glory shall be seen upon thee. And the Gentiles shall come to thy light, and kings to the brightness of thy rising." (Isaiah 60:1-3)
"But unto you that fear my name shall the Sun of righteousness arise with healing in his wings;" (Malachi 4:2)
"And thou, child, shalt be called the prophet of the Highest: for thou shalt go before the face of the Lord to prepare his ways; To give knowledge of salvation unto his people by the remission of their sins, Through the tender mercy of our God; whereby the dayspring from on high hath visited us, To give light to them that sit in darkness and in the shadow of death, to guide our feet into the way of peace. (Luke 1:76-79)
"We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts:" (2 Peter 1:19)
"I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star." (Revelation 22:16)
Some Christians try to avoid anything that has to do with sunrise imagery, presuming that it is pagan. Yet God in his Holy word compares Christ to the rising sun. The word, "Easter" (austra in Proto-Germanic and aster in Old Frisian; see above), with its connotation of a sunrise, pays tribute to this biblical imagery of Christ as the "Sun of righteousness". The word translated "dayspring" at Luke 1:78 is "ανατολη", which means "1) a rising (of the sun and stars); 2) the east (the direction of the sun’s rising)" (Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon). The Old West-Saxon version of the Gospel of Luke translates the word as "eastdæle", which is the Saxon word for "east/sunrise". Luke 1:78 in West-Saxon reads, "þurh innoþas ures godes mildheortnesse. on þam he us geneosode of eastdæle up springende;" This is another proof that the word "Easter" came from the biblical language of the Saxons.

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Sean]

For those that are convinced the KJV Bible translators got Acts 12:4 wrong....

Many English-speaking people are deceived by the similar sounds between "Pascha" and "Passover" and therefore find it difficult to understand that "Pascha" could mean Easter. The English word, "Passover", is a perfect translation of "Pascha" in the context of the Jewish celebration because the root Hebrew word, "פּסח (pasach)", means "to pass over" (Brown-Driver-Briggs’ Hebrew Definitions). Yet it is only in English that the verb, "pass over", and "Pasach/Pascha" are phonetically similar. In other languages, it is not so obvious from phonetics that "Pascha" refers to the Passover. Perhaps that is why in most other languages the primary meaning of "Pascha" is not Passover. For example, in modern Greek, "Πάσχα (Pascha)" primarily means Easter. When a non-Jewish Greek person says, "Καλό Πάσχα! (Happy Pascha!)", he is not wishing you a happy Jewish holiday but rather a happy Christian holiday. In modern Greek, Passover is the secondary meaning of "Pascha". "Pascha" means Passover only when the context is clearly Jewish or when the word is qualified as being the Hebrew or Jewish "Pascha" as follows:
Easter = Πάσχα (Pascha)
Passover = εβραϊκό Πάσχα (Hebrew Pascha), Πάσχα των ιουδαίων (Pascha of the Jew)

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Sean]

"Pascha" meant Easter in the first century

There is no doubt that "Πάσχα" means Easter in modern Greek. The charge, however, is that "Πάσχα" did not mean Easter until centuries after the composition of Acts 12:4. This is not true. In the Gospel of John there is already a distinction being made between the Christian Πάσχα and the Jewish Πάσχα. One of the words for Passover in modern Greek is "Πάσχα των ιουδαίων" (Passover of the Jews). We see this same phrase already in the time of John the Apostle:
John 2:13: "And the Jews' passover was at hand...." (και εγγυς ην το πασχα των ιουδαιων)
John 11:55: "And the Jews' passover was nigh at hand...." (ην δε εγγυς το πασχα των ιουδαιων)
The fact that John writes, "Jews’ Pascha (πασχα των ιουδαιων)" indicates that there was a need to qualify the word "Pascha" for the immediate audience of John's Gospel. Such a phrase would be redundant unless there were already a distinction between a "Jew's" Pascha and "another" Pascha. Apparently within the first century, Christians had already appropriated the word "Pascha" to refer to the Christian celebration of the resurrection.

Eusebius' testimony is clear that the Apostles were already celebrating the "Saviour's Pascha", which is clearly not the "Jews' Pascha":

"Ζητήσεως δῆτα κατὰ τούσδε οὐ σμικρᾶς ἀνακινηθείσης, ὅτι δὴ τῆς Ἀσίας ἁπάσης αἱ παροικίαι ὡς ἐκ παραδόσεως ἀρχαιοτέρας σελήνης τὴν τεσσαρεσκαιδεκάτην ᾤοντο δεῖν ἐπὶ τῆς τοῦ σωτηρίου πάσχα ἑορτῆς παραφυλάττειν, ἐν ᾗ θύειν τὸ πρόβατον Ἰουδαίοις προηγόρευτο, ὡς δέον ἐκ παντὸς κατὰ ταύτην, ὁποίᾳ δἂν ἡμέρᾳ τῆς ἑβδομάδος περιτυγχάνοι, τὰς τῶν ἀσιτιῶν ἐπιλύσεις ποιεῖσθαι, οὐκ ἔθους ὄντος τοῦτον ἐπιτελεῖν τὸν τρόπον ταῖς ἀνὰ τὴν λοιπὴν ἅπασαν οἰκουμένην ἐκκλησίαις, ἐξ ἀποστολικῆς παραδόσεως τὸ καὶ εἰς δεῦρο κρατῆσαν ἔθος φυλαττούσαις, ὡς μηδ' ἑτέρᾳ προσήκειν παρὰ τὴν τῆς ἀναστάσεως τοῦ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν ἡμέρᾳ τὰς νηστείας ἐπιλύεσθαι" (Church History, Book V, 23:1)

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Sean]

Those who deny that "Πάσχα" came to mean "Easter" in Apostolic times are unable to explain when the shift in meaning arose. There is no record of councils or debates documenting the shift in the meaning of "Πάσχα" in Greek. There is also no logical reason for the shift in meaning to take place over hundreds of years. As far back as we can document, Greek Christians have accepted that "Πάσχα" refers to the celebration of the Lord's resurrection, which is "Easter".

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Sean]

Given John's use of the word and the uncontradicted testimonies of early church fathers, it is far more candid to accept that "Πάσχα" already meant "Easter" in the first century. In the Bible, "Πάσχα" means Passover only when used by Jews or by anyone specifically referring to the Jewish celebration. In passages prior to Christ’s resurrection, the KJV translates “Πάσχα” as “Passover” because the narrators and characters are still referring to the Jewish festival. The only times the KJV translates “Πάσχα” as “Passover” after the resurrection are in 1 Corinthians 5:7 and Hebrews 11:28. In 1 Corinthians 5:7, the word "passover" refers to the passover lamb rather than the day of the year, so it is correctly translated "passover". In Hebrews 11:28,


http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Sean]

"Pascha" meant Easter to Luke, the narrator of Acts 12:4

Whether "Πάσχα" should be Passover or Easter at Acts 12:4 must be determined by discerning who is using the word in this instance. If the word is used by a Jew, then the word would mean Passover. If the word is used by Herod, then the word would mean Passover or perhaps a pagan festival (although the possibility of "Πάσχα" referring to a pagan festival has no basis in history or etymology). Contrary to what many believe, it is neither the Jews nor Herod who is using the word "Πάσχα" at Acts 12:4. It is actually Luke, the Christian narrator of Acts, who is using the word "Πάσχα" to describe the timeline of events for his Christian readers in the latter first century, many of whom were Gentile Christians. At the time of Luke's writing, "Πάσχα" at Acts 12:4 was no longer the Passover but Easter. When Luke speaks in Acts 12:4 as narrator, he is using words according to the mutual Christian perspective of himself and his readers. This is evident because he uses the word "church" (εκκλησία) at Acts 12:1 to refer to Christians.

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Sean]

Sorry to burst your bubble, but the KJV Only crowd live in a fantasy wonderland where queen Gail Riplinger can make a word mean whatever she wants it to mean, never mind the dictionary. The Mad Hatter AKA Sean is a loyal pet subject of the queen. :D



Spoken by a guy that is determined to hire someone to translate for him his own Bible version....LOL


I can see it now....


American Standard Version ASV Modern English 1901 Masoretic Text, Westcott and Hort 1881 and Tregelles 1857 This version is now in the public domain due to copyright expiration.
American King James Version AKJV Modern English 1999 Revision of the King James Version This version has been dedicated to the Public Domain by Michael Peter (Stone) Engelbrite.
Amplified Bible AMP Modern English 1965 Revision of the American Standard Version
An American Translation Modern English 1935 Masoretic Text, various[which?] Greek texts.
ArtScroll Tanakh (Old Testament) Modern English 1996 Masoretic Text
An American Translation Modern English 1976 Masoretic Text, various[which?] Greek texts.
The Beloved and I: New Jubilees Version of the Sacred Scriptures in Verse Modern English 2005
Berkeley Version Modern English 1958
Bible in English Modern English 1949
The Bible in Living English Modern English 1972
Bishops' Bible Early Modern English 1568 Masoretic Text, Textus Receptus
Catholic Public Domain Version Modern English 2009 Sixtus V and Clement VIII Latin Vulgate by Ronald L. Conte Jr., in the public domain
Children's King James Version Modern English 1962 Revision of the King James Version. by Jay P. Green
Christian Community Bible, English version Modern English 1986 Hebrew and Greek
Clear Word Bible Modern English 1994
Common English Bible CEB Modern English 2011
Complete Jewish Bible CJB Modern English 1998 Paraphrase of the Jewish Publication Society of America Version (Old Testament), and from Greek (New Testament) text.
Contemporary English Version CEV Modern English 1995
Concordant Literal Version Modern English 1926. Rev. 1931, 1966 Restored Greek syntax. A concordance of every form of every Greek word was made and systematized and turned into English. The whole Greek vocabulary was analyzed and translated, using a standard English equivalent for each Greek element.
Coverdale Bible Early Modern English 1535 Masoretic Text, the Greek New Testament of Erasmus, Vulgate, and German and Swiss-German Bibles (Luther Bible, Zürich Bible and Leo Jud's Bible) First complete Bible printed in English (Early Modern English)
Dabhar Translation Modern English 2005 Masoretic Text, Codex Sinaiticus
Darby Bible DBY Modern English 1890 Masoretic Text, various critical editions of the Greek text (i.a. Tregelles, Tischendorf, Westcott and Hort). This Bible version is now Public Domain due to copyright expiration.
Divine Name King James Bible[6] DNKJB Early Modern English 2011 Masoretic Text, Textus Receptus Authorized King James Version which restores the Divine Name, Jehovah to the original text in 6,972 places.
Douay–Rheims Bible Early Modern English 1582 (New Testament)
1609–1610 (Old Testament) Latin, Greek and Hebrew manuscripts. This work is now Public Domain.
Douay-Rheims Bible (Challoner Revision) Modern English 1752 Clementine Vulgate This Bible version is now Public Domain due to copyright expiration.
EasyEnglish Bible Modern English 2001 Wycliffe Associates (UK)
Easy-to-Read Version Modern English 1989 Textus Receptus, United Bible Society (UBS) Greek text, Nestle-Aland Text
Emphasized Bible EBR Modern English 1902 Translated by Joseph Bryant Rotherham based on The New Testament in the Original Greek and Christian David Ginsburg's Massoretico-critical edition of the Hebrew Bible (1894) Uses various methods, such as "emphatic idiom" and special diacritical marks, to bring out nuances of the underlying Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic texts. Public Domain due to copyright expiration.
English Jubilee 2000 Bible Modern English 2000
English Standard Version ESV Modern English 2001 Revision of the Revised Standard Version. (Westcott-Hort, Weiss, Tischendorf Greek texts)
Ferrar Fenton Bible Modern English 1853 Masoretic Text and the Westcott and Hort Greek text
Geneva Bible Early Modern English 1557 (New Testament)
1560 (complete Bible)

Masoretic Text, Textus Receptus First English Bible with whole of Old Testament translated direct from Hebrew texts
God's Word GW Modern English 1995
Good News Bible GNB Modern English 1976 United Bible Society (UBS) Greek text Formerly known as Today's English Version
Great Bible Early Modern English 1539 Masoretic Text, Greek New Testament of Erasmus, the Vulgate, and the Luther Bible.
HalleluYah Scriptures English & Paleo Hebrew Names 2009 Masoretic, DSS, Majority Text, Aramaic Peshitta. Free Restored Name Scriptures
Hebraic Roots Version English & Hebrew Names 2004 Hebrew Masoretic Text, Hebrew and Aramaic New Testament sources. The Hebraic Roots Version Scriptures is a translation of the Tanakh/Old Testament from the Hebrew Masoretic Text. Revised from the public domain JPS 1917 edition, and placed together with a revised edition of the Hebrew Roots New Testament (based on Hebrew and Aramaic sources) each with useful footnotes, and an informative preface to the whole work.
Holman Christian Standard Bible HCSB Modern English 2004 Masoretic Text, Nestle-Aland Text.
The Inclusive Bible Modern English 2007 From the original Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek
International Standard Version ISV Modern English 2011
Jerusalem Bible JB Modern English 1966 From the original Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek, with influence from the French La Bible de Jérusalem.
Jewish Publication Society of America Version Tanakh (Old Testament) JPS Modern English 1917 Masoretic Text The Old Testament translation is based on the Hebrew Masoretic text. It follows the edition of Seligman Baer except for the books of Exodus to Deuteronomy, which never appeared in Baer's edition. For those books, C. D. Ginsburg's Hebrew text was used. This Bible version is now Public Domain due to copyright expiration.
Judaica Press Tanakh (Old Testament). Modern English 1963 Masoretic Text
Julia E. Smith Parker Translation Modern English 1876 Masoretic Text, Textus Receptus
King James 2000 Version Modern English 2000 Revision of the King James Version.
King James Easy Reading Version Modern English 2010 Revision of the King James Version. Textus Receptus. King's Word Press. GEM Publishing.[7]
King James Version AV or KJV Early Modern English 1611 Masoretic Text, Textus Receptus, Tyndale 1526 NT, some Erasmus manuscripts, and Bezae 1598 TR. This Bible version is now Public Domain worldwide due to copyright expiration except in the United Kingdom due to crown letters patent until 2039.
King James II Version KJ2 Modern English 1971 Masoretic Text, Textus Receptus by Jay P. Green, Sr.
Knox's Translation of the Vulgate Modern English 1955 Vulgate, with influence from the original Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek.
Lamsa Bible Modern English 1933 Syriac Peshitta
A Literal Translation of the Bible LITV Modern English 1985 Masoretic Text, Textus Receptus (Estienne 1550) by Jay P. Green, Sr.
Leeser Bible, Tanakh (Old Testament) Modern English 1994 Masoretic Text
The Living Bible TLB Modern English 1971 American Standard Version (paraphrase)
The Living Torah and The Living Nach. Tanakh (Old Testament) Modern English 1994 Masoretic Text
Matthew's Bible Early Modern English 1537 Masoretic Text, the Greek New Testament of Erasmus, the Vulgate, the Luther Bible, and a French version.[which?]
The Message MSG Modern English 2002
Modern King James Version Modern English 1990 Masoretic Text, Textus Receptus by Jay P. Green, Sr.
Modern Language Bible Modern English 1969 Also called "The New Berkeley Version"
Moffatt, New Translation Modern English 1926 Greek text of Hermann von Soden
Murdock Translation of the Western Peshitto Modern English 1852[8] Western Peshitto (or Peshito)[9] by Dr. James Murdock. The Western Peshitto "is virtually the same as the Eastern Peshitta, besides the addition of 2Peter, 2John, 3John, Jude and Revelation".[10]
Names of God Bible NOG Modern English (GW) & Early Modern English (KJV) 2011,2014 GW edition: NT: Nestle-Aland Greek New Testament 27th edition. OT: Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia. KJV edition: OT: Masoretic Text, NT: Textus Receptus. By Ann Spangler, The Names of God Bible restores the transliterations of ancient names—such as Yahweh, El Shadday, El Elyon, and Adonay—to help the reader better understand the rich meaning of God’s names that are found in the original Hebrew and Aramaic text.
New American Bible NAB Modern English 1970
New American Standard Bible NASB Modern English 1971 Masoretic Text, Nestle-Aland Text
New Century Version NCV Modern English 1991
New English Bible NEB Modern English 1970 Masoretic Text, Greek New Testament[disambiguation needed]
New English Translation (NET Bible) NET Modern English 2005 Masoretic Text, Nestle-Aland/United Bible Society Greek New Testament
New International Reader's Version NiRV Modern English 1998 New International Version (simplified syntax, but loss of conjunctions obscures meanings)
New International Version Inclusive Language Edition Modern English 1996 Revision of the New International Version.
New International Version NIV Modern English 1978 Masoretic Text, Nestle-Aland Greek New Testament (based on Westcott-Hort, Weiss and Tischendorf, 1862).
New Jerusalem Bible NJB Modern English 1985 From the original Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek, with influence from the French La Bible de Jérusalem
The Apostolic Bible, by Flaming Zword.:mal


LOL

[Evang.Benincasa]

Those who deny that "Πάσχα" came to mean "Easter" in Apostolic times are unable to explain when the shift in meaning arose. There is no record of councils or debates documenting the shift in the meaning of "Πάσχα" in Greek. There is also no logical reason for the shift in meaning to take place over hundreds of years. As far back as we can document, Greek Christians have accepted that "Πάσχα" refers to the celebration of the Lord's resurrection, which is "Easter".

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

Why are you showing us a Greek word that has been translated to mean passover in the KJV and other English translations? When you don't use any Greek dictionaries or lexicons?



I only use a KJV and a dictionary...NOT modern opinions of modern Greek interlinear authors, like Strongs, etc. for my Word of God.....One untainted Bible that means what it says, exactly as the Received Text was to be translated into my language...the KJV!

[Evang.Benincasa]

Spoken by a guy that is determined to hire someone to translate for him his own Bible version....LOL


I can see it now....


American Standard Version ASV Modern English 1901 Masoretic Text, Westcott and Hort 1881 and Tregelles 1857 This version is now in the public domain due to copyright expiration.
American King James Version AKJV Modern English 1999 Revision of the King James Version This version has been dedicated to the Public Domain by Michael Peter (Stone) Engelbrite.
Amplified Bible AMP Modern English 1965 Revision of the American Standard Version
An American Translation Modern English 1935 Masoretic Text, various[which?] Greek texts.
ArtScroll Tanakh (Old Testament) Modern English 1996 Masoretic Text
An American Translation Modern English 1976 Masoretic Text, various[which?] Greek texts.
The Beloved and I: New Jubilees Version of the Sacred Scriptures in Verse Modern English 2005
Berkeley Version Modern English 1958
Bible in English Modern English 1949
The Bible in Living English Modern English 1972
Bishops' Bible Early Modern English 1568 Masoretic Text, Textus Receptus
Catholic Public Domain Version Modern English 2009 Sixtus V and Clement VIII Latin Vulgate by Ronald L. Conte Jr., in the public domain
Children's King James Version Modern English 1962 Revision of the King James Version. by Jay P. Green
Christian Community Bible, English version Modern English 1986 Hebrew and Greek
Clear Word Bible Modern English 1994
Common English Bible CEB Modern English 2011
Complete Jewish Bible CJB Modern English 1998 Paraphrase of the Jewish Publication Society of America Version (Old Testament), and from Greek (New Testament) text.
Contemporary English Version CEV Modern English 1995
Concordant Literal Version Modern English 1926. Rev. 1931, 1966 Restored Greek syntax. A concordance of every form of every Greek word was made and systematized and turned into English. The whole Greek vocabulary was analyzed and translated, using a standard English equivalent for each Greek element.
Coverdale Bible Early Modern English 1535 Masoretic Text, the Greek New Testament of Erasmus, Vulgate, and German and Swiss-German Bibles (Luther Bible, Zürich Bible and Leo Jud's Bible) First complete Bible printed in English (Early Modern English)
Dabhar Translation Modern English 2005 Masoretic Text, Codex Sinaiticus
Darby Bible DBY Modern English 1890 Masoretic Text, various critical editions of the Greek text (i.a. Tregelles, Tischendorf, Westcott and Hort). This Bible version is now Public Domain due to copyright expiration.
Divine Name King James Bible[6] DNKJB Early Modern English 2011 Masoretic Text, Textus Receptus Authorized King James Version which restores the Divine Name, Jehovah to the original text in 6,972 places.
Douay–Rheims Bible Early Modern English 1582 (New Testament)
1609–1610 (Old Testament) Latin, Greek and Hebrew manuscripts. This work is now Public Domain.
Douay-Rheims Bible (Challoner Revision) Modern English 1752 Clementine Vulgate This Bible version is now Public Domain due to copyright expiration.
EasyEnglish Bible Modern English 2001 Wycliffe Associates (UK)
Easy-to-Read Version Modern English 1989 Textus Receptus, United Bible Society (UBS) Greek text, Nestle-Aland Text
Emphasized Bible EBR Modern English 1902 Translated by Joseph Bryant Rotherham based on The New Testament in the Original Greek and Christian David Ginsburg's Massoretico-critical edition of the Hebrew Bible (1894) Uses various methods, such as "emphatic idiom" and special diacritical marks, to bring out nuances of the underlying Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic texts. Public Domain due to copyright expiration.
English Jubilee 2000 Bible Modern English 2000
English Standard Version ESV Modern English 2001 Revision of the Revised Standard Version. (Westcott-Hort, Weiss, Tischendorf Greek texts)
Ferrar Fenton Bible Modern English 1853 Masoretic Text and the Westcott and Hort Greek text
Geneva Bible Early Modern English 1557 (New Testament)
1560 (complete Bible)

Masoretic Text, Textus Receptus First English Bible with whole of Old Testament translated direct from Hebrew texts
God's Word GW Modern English 1995
Good News Bible GNB Modern English 1976 United Bible Society (UBS) Greek text Formerly known as Today's English Version
Great Bible Early Modern English 1539 Masoretic Text, Greek New Testament of Erasmus, the Vulgate, and the Luther Bible.
HalleluYah Scriptures English & Paleo Hebrew Names 2009 Masoretic, DSS, Majority Text, Aramaic Peshitta. Free Restored Name Scriptures
Hebraic Roots Version English & Hebrew Names 2004 Hebrew Masoretic Text, Hebrew and Aramaic New Testament sources. The Hebraic Roots Version Scriptures is a translation of the Tanakh/Old Testament from the Hebrew Masoretic Text. Revised from the public domain JPS 1917 edition, and placed together with a revised edition of the Hebrew Roots New Testament (based on Hebrew and Aramaic sources) each with useful footnotes, and an informative preface to the whole work.
Holman Christian Standard Bible HCSB Modern English 2004 Masoretic Text, Nestle-Aland Text.
The Inclusive Bible Modern English 2007 From the original Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek
International Standard Version ISV Modern English 2011
Jerusalem Bible JB Modern English 1966 From the original Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek, with influence from the French La Bible de Jérusalem.
Jewish Publication Society of America Version Tanakh (Old Testament) JPS Modern English 1917 Masoretic Text The Old Testament translation is based on the Hebrew Masoretic text. It follows the edition of Seligman Baer except for the books of Exodus to Deuteronomy, which never appeared in Baer's edition. For those books, C. D. Ginsburg's Hebrew text was used. This Bible version is now Public Domain due to copyright expiration.
Judaica Press Tanakh (Old Testament). Modern English 1963 Masoretic Text
Julia E. Smith Parker Translation Modern English 1876 Masoretic Text, Textus Receptus
King James 2000 Version Modern English 2000 Revision of the King James Version.
King James Easy Reading Version Modern English 2010 Revision of the King James Version. Textus Receptus. King's Word Press. GEM Publishing.[7]
King James Version AV or KJV Early Modern English 1611 Masoretic Text, Textus Receptus, Tyndale 1526 NT, some Erasmus manuscripts, and Bezae 1598 TR. This Bible version is now Public Domain worldwide due to copyright expiration except in the United Kingdom due to crown letters patent until 2039.
King James II Version KJ2 Modern English 1971 Masoretic Text, Textus Receptus by Jay P. Green, Sr.
Knox's Translation of the Vulgate Modern English 1955 Vulgate, with influence from the original Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek.
Lamsa Bible Modern English 1933 Syriac Peshitta
A Literal Translation of the Bible LITV Modern English 1985 Masoretic Text, Textus Receptus (Estienne 1550) by Jay P. Green, Sr.
Leeser Bible, Tanakh (Old Testament) Modern English 1994 Masoretic Text
The Living Bible TLB Modern English 1971 American Standard Version (paraphrase)
The Living Torah and The Living Nach. Tanakh (Old Testament) Modern English 1994 Masoretic Text
Matthew's Bible Early Modern English 1537 Masoretic Text, the Greek New Testament of Erasmus, the Vulgate, the Luther Bible, and a French version.[which?]
The Message MSG Modern English 2002
Modern King James Version Modern English 1990 Masoretic Text, Textus Receptus by Jay P. Green, Sr.
Modern Language Bible Modern English 1969 Also called "The New Berkeley Version"
Moffatt, New Translation Modern English 1926 Greek text of Hermann von Soden
Murdock Translation of the Western Peshitto Modern English 1852[8] Western Peshitto (or Peshito)[9] by Dr. James Murdock. The Western Peshitto "is virtually the same as the Eastern Peshitta, besides the addition of 2Peter, 2John, 3John, Jude and Revelation".[10]
Names of God Bible NOG Modern English (GW) & Early Modern English (KJV) 2011,2014 GW edition: NT: Nestle-Aland Greek New Testament 27th edition. OT: Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia. KJV edition: OT: Masoretic Text, NT: Textus Receptus. By Ann Spangler, The Names of God Bible restores the transliterations of ancient names—such as Yahweh, El Shadday, El Elyon, and Adonay—to help the reader better understand the rich meaning of God’s names that are found in the original Hebrew and Aramaic text.
New American Bible NAB Modern English 1970
New American Standard Bible NASB Modern English 1971 Masoretic Text, Nestle-Aland Text
New Century Version NCV Modern English 1991
New English Bible NEB Modern English 1970 Masoretic Text, Greek New Testament[disambiguation needed]
New English Translation (NET Bible) NET Modern English 2005 Masoretic Text, Nestle-Aland/United Bible Society Greek New Testament
New International Reader's Version NiRV Modern English 1998 New International Version (simplified syntax, but loss of conjunctions obscures meanings)
New International Version Inclusive Language Edition Modern English 1996 Revision of the New International Version.
New International Version NIV Modern English 1978 Masoretic Text, Nestle-Aland Greek New Testament (based on Westcott-Hort, Weiss and Tischendorf, 1862).
New Jerusalem Bible NJB Modern English 1985 From the original Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek, with influence from the French La Bible de Jérusalem
The Apostolic Bible, by Flaming Zword.:mal


LOL

FlamingZword is a translator (professionally) yet, you are not. ;)

[Sean]

Oh......LOL

[Sean]

Why are you showing us a Greek word that has been translated to mean passover in the KJV and other English translations? When you don't use any Greek dictionaries or lexicons?


I am happy with the KJV translation in English...

I posted that for your benefit.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Numbers 9:2 εἰπὸν καὶ ποιείτωσαν οἱ υἱοὶ Ισραηλ τὸ
πασχα καθ᾽ ὥραν αὐτοῦ

Let the children of Israel also keep the passover at his appointed season.

Wow, well look at that, even translators of the LXX translate the word πασχα as passover.

[Evang.Benincasa]

I am happy with the KJV translation in English...

I posted that for your benefit.

No you didn't.

You really don't see a problem with causal lying?

[Evang.Benincasa]

H6453 * פֶּסַה (pesah)
pesach G3957 * πάσχα (paskha) pascha

The Greek is actually a transliteration from Hebrew to Greek.


פּסח

pesach

peh'-sakh

Total KJV Occurrences: 49
• offerings, 3
2Chr 35:7; 2Chr 35:8; 2Chr 35:9

• passover, 45
Exod 12:11; Exod 12:21; Exod 12:27; Exod 12:43; Exod 12:48; Exod 34:25; Lev 23:5; Num 9:2; Num 9:4; Num 9:5; Num 9:6; Num 9:10; Num 9:12; Num 9:13; Num 9:14(2); Num 28:16; Num 33:3; Deut 16:1; Deut 16:2; Deut 16:5; Deut 16:6; Josh 5:10; Josh 5:11; 2Kgs 23:21; 2Kgs 23:22; 2Kgs 23:23; 2Chr 30:1; 2Chr 30:2; 2Chr 30:5; 2Chr 30:15; 2Chr 30:18; 2Chr 35:1(2); 2Chr 35:6; 2Chr 35:11; 2Chr 35:13; 2Chr 35:16; 2Chr 35:17; 2Chr 35:18(2); 2Chr 35:19; Ezra 6:19; Ezra 6:20; Ezek 45:21

• passovers, 1
2Chr 30:17

[Sean]

This thread is going completely over your head...LOL

[Evang.Benincasa]

This thread is going completely over your head...LOL

Sean, you could only dream that were true. :lol

[mfblume]

Pascha came to refer to Christ's resurrection, yes. But Christ's resurrection was not the word Easter. And Easter did not mean resurrection or passover in the first century. It was Pascha. Easter is English. No one there in the first century in Israel spoke English. Meanwhile, the English people had Easter when nothing to do with Christ at that time. It was a pagan term at that day. So, yes, Pascha came to regret to Christ's resurrection, but Pascha is Greek and not English.

So literally Passover came to be known as Christ's resurrection, not Easter. Pascha literally means passover.

Centuries later Easter was forced into Christianity from the pagan roots and then people began thinking easter was passover. In other words Pascha became known as Easter centuries later. But it is dihonestly wrong to say Easter came to be understood as Christ's resurrection just because Pascha/passover came to be understood as Christ's resurrection. Easter did not refer to his resurrection in the first century when pacha/passover came to be understood as his resurrection. It's only centuries later when Easter came to be associated with resurrection that this can be said. You can't take a word from centuries after the word Pascha meant Christ's resurrection and claim it's a first century term. The Greek terms are correct. Not centuries-later terms.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Pascha came to refer to Christ's resurrection, yes. But Christ's resurrection was not the word Easter. And Easter did not mean resurrection or passover in the first century. It was Pascha. Easter is English. No one there in the first century in Israel spoke English. Meanwhile, the English people had Easter when nothing to do with Christ at that time. It was a pagan term at that day. So, yes, Pascha came to regret to Christ's resurrection, but Pascha is Greek and not English.

So literally Passover came to be known as Christ's resurrection, not Easter. Pascha literally means passover.

Centuries later Easter was forced into Christianity from the pagan roots and then people began thinking easter was passover. In other words Pascha became known as Easter centuries later. But it is dihonestly wrong to say Easter came to be understood as Christ's resurrection just because Pascha/passover came to be understood as Christ's resurrection. Easter did not refer to his resurrection in the first century when pacha/passover came to be understood as his resurrection. It's only centuries later when Easter came to be associated with resurrection that this can be said. You can't take a word from centuries after the word Pascha meant Christ's resurrection and claim it's a first century term. The Greek terms are correct. Not centuries-later terms.

Thank you for the sanity. :thumbsup

[Sean]

Pascha came to refer to Christ's resurrection, yes. But Christ's resurrection was not the word Easter. And Easter did not mean resurrection or passover in the first century. It was Pascha. Easter is English. No one there in the first century in Israel spoke English. Meanwhile, the English people had Easter when nothing to do with Christ at that time. It was a pagan term at that day. So, yes, Pascha came to regret to Christ's resurrection, but Pascha is Greek and not English.

So literally Passover came to be known as Christ's resurrection, not Easter. Pascha literally means passover.

Centuries later Easter was forced into Christianity from the pagan roots and then people began thinking easter was passover. In other words Pascha became known as Easter centuries later. But it is dihonestly wrong to say Easter came to be understood as Christ's resurrection just because Pascha/passover came to be understood as Christ's resurrection. Easter did not refer to his resurrection in the first century when pacha/passover came to be understood as his resurrection. It's only centuries later when Easter came to be associated with resurrection that this can be said. You can't take a word from centuries after the word Pascha meant Christ's resurrection and claim it's a first century term. The Greek terms are correct. Not centuries-later terms.




Easter originally meant sunrise in 1611, Mike. You are so bent on finding fault with the KJV that you refuse to try to research the original post.
I understand your dilemma though.
Some preterists think they are even professional translators....
Right, FlamingZword?.....LOL

[Sean]

FlamingZword is a translator (professionally) yet, you are not. ;)




LOL

[Evang.Benincasa]

Easter originally meant sunrise in 1611, Mike. You are so bent on finding fault with the KJV that you refuse to try to research the original post.
I understand your dilemma though.
Some preterists think they are even professional translators....
Right, FlamingZword?.....LOL


Sean, easter means sunrise? But pascha doesn't mean sunrise in Greek or Hebrew. Sean, do you realize you just through the KJV under the bus? Do you understand that you have posted that easter really meant "sunrise" in the 17th century? Therefore bringing in doubt on the translator's accuracy for the 1611 KJV translation of the Greek New Testament? Because you claim that they translated pascha which means "to pass over" as "sun rise?"

Sean, may I suggest that you give this whole KJV debate a rest, due to you not having the faintest idea of what you are talking about?

Also, you bring in eschatology when it isn't being discussed like some teenage girl having a melt down. May I also suggest that you stop eating soy products, because it seems to be raising your estrogen levels.

[Evang.Benincasa]

LOL

Yes Sean, you are a Little Old Lady :nod

[mfblume]

Easter originally meant sunrise in 1611, Mike. You are so bent on finding fault with the KJV that you refuse to try to research the original post.
I understand your dilemma though.
Some preterists think they are even professional translators....
Right, FlamingZword?.....LOL


1611 is a far cry from the first century, which was my point to begin with. Lol. And I use kjv more than anything else. Try again.

My whole point was that pascha means nothing about dawn, sunrise or east. You're proving my point but you're so bent on disagreeing with me you don't see it.

[Evang.Benincasa]

1611 is a far cry from the first century, which was my point to begin with. Lol. And I use kjv more than anything else. Try again.

My whole point was that pascha means nothing about dawn, sunrise or east. You're proving my point but you're so bent on disagreeing with me you don't see it.

Bravo! Bravo!

http://media.giphy.com/media/ko10VijRk4oi4/giphy.gif

[Evang.Benincasa]

http://www.toolong.com/images/acts/ACTS1231.jpg

[mfblume]

:thumbsup

[Praxeas]

[LEFT]Obviously the KJV attacker crowd did not read the link...LOL


"Easter" is etymologically related to "east" (the direction) and refers to the "rising" of our Lord.

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU
Read this again
Easter (n.) (http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=Easter&allowed_in_frame=0) http://www.etymonline.com/graphics/dictionary.gif (http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=Easter)Old English Easterdæg, from Eastre (Northumbrian Eostre), from Proto-Germanic *austron-, "dawn," also the name of a goddess of fertility and spring, perhaps originally of sunrise, whose feast was celebrated at the spring equinox, from *aust- "east, toward the sunrise" (compare east (http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=east&allowed_in_frame=0)), from PIE *aus- (1) "to shine" (especially of the dawn); see aurora (http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=aurora&allowed_in_frame=0).

Bede says Anglo-Saxon Christians adopted her name and many of the celebratory practices for their Mass of Christ's resurrection. Almost all neighboring languages use a variant of Latin Pascha to name this holiday (see paschal (http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=paschal&allowed_in_frame=0)). Easter egg attested by 1825, earlier pace egg (1610s). Easter bunny attested by 1904 in children's lessons; Easter rabbit is by 1888; the paganish customs of Easter seem to have grown popular c. 1900; before that they were limited to German immigrants.}

http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=easter

It has nothing to do with the Lord. Nor does EAST have anything to do with the resurrection.

Also there are/were two other words could be used for East...yes "east"...in 1611 they actually used the word EAST for the direction, not EASTER

And for the rising of the Lord they used RESURREFCTION

But more important, the actual Greek word is Paschal that does not mean east or resurrection

[Praxeas]

Fantasy
For those that are convinced the KJV Bible translators got Acts 12:4 wrong....

Many English-speaking people are deceived by the similar sounds between "Pascha" and "Passover" and therefore find it difficult to understand that "Pascha" could mean Easter. The English word, "Passover", is a perfect translation of "Pascha" in the context of the Jewish celebration because the root Hebrew word, "פּסח (pasach)", means "to pass over" (Brown-Driver-Briggs’ Hebrew Definitions). Yet it is only in English that the verb, "pass over", and "Pasach/Pascha" are phonetically similar. In other languages, it is not so obvious from phonetics that "Pascha" refers to the Passover. Perhaps that is why in most other languages the primary meaning of "Pascha" is not Passover. For example, in modern Greek, "Πάσχα (Pascha)" primarily means Easter. When a non-Jewish Greek person says, "Καλό Πάσχα! (Happy Pascha!)", he is not wishing you a happy Jewish holiday but rather a happy Christian holiday. In modern Greek, Passover is the secondary meaning of "Pascha". "Pascha" means Passover only when the context is clearly Jewish or when the word is qualified as being the Hebrew or Jewish "Pascha" as follows:
Easter = Πάσχα (Pascha)
Passover = εβραϊκό Πάσχα (Hebrew Pascha), Πάσχα των ιουδαίων (Pascha of the Jew)

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU
Truth

From a Greek Lexicon by Zodhaites
páscha; neut. noun transliterated from the Hebr. pesach (H6453), to pass over, spare. The Passover, an exemption, immunity (Sept.: Exo_12:11, Exo_12:21). The great sacrifice and festival of the Jews which was instituted in commemoration of God's sparing the Jews when He destroyed the firstborn of the Egyptians. It was celebrated on the fourteenth day of the month Nisan. For the institution and particular laws of this festival see Ex. 12; Lev_23:5; Num_9:2-6. The later Jews made some additions. In particular they drank four cups of wine at various intervals during the paschal supper. The third of these cups, called the cup of benediction, is referred to in 1Co_10:16 (cf. Mat_26:27). In the NT, tó páscha, the Passover, may refer to the festival or to the paschal lamb.

In fact YOUR KJV translates it PASSOVER in other places
Mat 26:18 And he said, Go into the city to such a man, and say unto him, The Master saith, My time is at hand; I will keep the passover at thy house with my disciples.

Mat 26:2 "You know that after two days is the Passover, and the Son of Man will be delivered up to be crucified."

Mar 14:1 After two days it was the Passover and the Feast of Unleavened Bread. And the chief priests and the scribes sought how they might take Him by trickery and put Him to death.

Luk 2:41 His parents went to Jerusalem every year at the Feast of the Passover.

Joh 2:13 Now the Passover of the Jews was at hand, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem.

That's just a sample

[Praxeas]

Barnes
Intending after Easter - There never was a more absurd or unhappy translation than this. The original is simply after the Passover (μετὰ τὸ πάσχα meta to pascha. The word “Easter” now denotes the festival observed by many Christian churches in honor of the resurrection of the Saviour. But the original has no reference to that, nor is there the slightest evidence that any such festival was observed at the time when this book was written. The translation is not only unhappy, as it does not convey at all the meaning of the original, but because it may contribute to foster an opinion that such a festival was observed in the time of the apostles. The word “Easter” is of Saxon origin, and is supposed to be derived from “Eostre,” the goddess of Love, or the Venus of the North, in honor of whom a festival was celebrated by our pagan ancestors in the month of April (Webster). Since this festival coincided with the Passover of the Jews, and with the feast observed by Christians in honor of the resurrection of Christ, the name came to be used to denote the latter. In the old Anglo-Saxon service-books the term “Easter” is used frequently to translate the word “Passover.” In the translation by Wycliffe, the word “paske,” that is, “Passover,” is used. But Tyndale and Coverdale used the word “Easter,” and hence, it has very improperly crept into our King James Version.

[FlamingZword]

FlamingZword is a translator (professionally) yet, you are not. ;)

Thank you

You are right, I was awarded the Linguist pin while in the Military.

I translated professionally for the US Army and later for private companies.
I actually was paid hard cold cash for my translations.

The Mad hatter has not the slightest idea of what translation is about. :D

[Praxeas]

Given John's use of the word and the uncontradicted testimonies of early church fathers, it is far more candid to accept that "Πάσχα" already meant "Easter" in the first century. In the Bible, "Πάσχα" means Passover only when used by Jews or by anyone specifically referring to the Jewish celebration. In passages prior to Christ’s resurrection, the KJV translates “Πάσχα” as “Passover” because the narrators and characters are still referring to the Jewish festival. The only times the KJV translates “Πάσχα” as “Passover” after the resurrection are in 1 Corinthians 5:7 and Hebrews 11:28. In 1 Corinthians 5:7, the word "passover" refers to the passover lamb rather than the day of the year, so it is correctly translated "passover". In Hebrews 11:28,


http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU
In the first Century? So...in the first century there in the Middle East and Roman provinces...they were speaking English?

[Praxeas]

Given John's use of the word and the uncontradicted testimonies of early church fathers, it is far more candid to accept that "Πάσχα" already meant "Easter" in the first century. In the Bible, "Πάσχα" means Passover only when used by Jews or by anyone specifically referring to the Jewish celebration. In passages prior to Christ’s resurrection, the KJV translates “Πάσχα” as “Passover” because the narrators and characters are still referring to the Jewish festival. The only times the KJV translates “Πάσχα” as “Passover” after the resurrection are in 1 Corinthians 5:7 and Hebrews 11:28. In 1 Corinthians 5:7, the word "passover" refers to the passover lamb rather than the day of the year, so it is correctly translated "passover". In Hebrews 11:28,


http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU
That makes the one instance in Acts an anomaly

In fact the PROOF it means Passover in Acts is right there in front of your face

Act 12:3 And because he saw that it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to seize Peter also. Now it was during the Days of Unleavened Bread.
Act 12:4 So when he had arrested him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four squads of soldiers to keep him, intending to bring him before the people after Passover.

Have you studied Passover and Unleavened Bread?


This event preceded the actual day of Passover

Barnes
The days of unleavened bread - The Passover, or the seven days immediately succeeding the Passover, during which the Jews were required to eat bread without leaven, Exo_12:15-18. It was some time during this period that Herod chose to apprehend Peter. Why this time was selected is not known. As it was, however, a season of religious solemnity, and as Herod was desirous of showing his attachment to the religious rites of the nation (Josephus, Antiq., Exo_19:7, Exo_19:3), it is probable that he chose this period to show to them more impressively his purpose to oppose all false religions, and to maintain the existing establishments of the nation.

[Praxeas]

Sean you really make yourself appear as an imbecile...take that however you wish but you really do.

[Sean]

Thanks Prax, I guess you think ALL KJV only folks are imbeciles....LOL


(I was only sharing a view of a man's post that "Easter" was a word meaning "Dawn" or "sunrise" 400 years ago, and it changed into a different meaning as we see it today)....

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Sean]

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU



Guys, is this guy an imbecile?

[mfblume]

Thanks Prax, I guess you think ALL KJV only folks are imbeciles....LOL

(I was only sharing a view of a man's post that "Easter" was a word meaning "Dawn" or "sunrise" 400 years ago, and it changed into a different meaning as we see it today)....

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

The point is pascha doesn't mean dawn or east or sunrise. Get it yet?

[Praxeas]

Thanks Prax, I guess you think ALL KJV only folks are imbeciles....LOL
No, because some are not just parrots for someone else without understanding why they believe what they believe.

(I was only sharing a view of a man's post that "Easter" was a word meaning "Dawn" or "sunrise" 400 years ago, and it changed into a different meaning as we see it today)....
No you were not. We all know that already. You were NOT just sharing someone elses view. You believe that imbecile's assertions

[Evang.Benincasa]

No, because some are not just parrots for someone else without understanding why they believe what they believe.


No you were not. We all know that already. You were NOT just sharing someone elses view. You believe that imbecile's assertions

http://media.giphy.com/media/iGGHjzCxell2o/giphy.gif

[FlamingZword]

No, because some are not just parrots for someone else without understanding why they believe what they believe.

No you were not. We all know that already. You were NOT just sharing someone elses view. You believe that imbecile's assertions

Hey Prax you can not win against Sean, you need at least 8 people to convince him, because 7 won't do.

Proverbs 26:16 "A Sean is wiser in his own eyes than seven people who answer discreetly" :D

Sorry I should have used the KJV since we are dealing with a KJV Only fanatic

Proverbs 26:16 "The Sean is wiser in his own conceit than seven men that can render a reason"

[UnTraditional]

The Geneva Bible (1560) records Acts 12:4 like this, "And when he had caught him, he put him in prison, and deliuered him to foure quaternions of souldiers to be kept, intending after the Passeouer to bring him foorth to the people."

In the original, pascha means Passover. It was changed by the KJV translators. Why? I am not sure. But, it was definitely changed. There is no reason for the change.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Hey Prax you can not win against Sean, you need at least 8 people to convince him, because 7 won't do.

Proverbs 26:16 "A Sean is wiser in his own eyes than seven people who answer discreetly" :D

Sorry I should have used the KJV since we are dealing with a KJV Only fanatic

Proverbs 26:16 "The Sean is wiser in his own conceit than seven men that can render a reason"

Just imagine his Bible studies, they must be gladiator school. ;)

[Evang.Benincasa]

The Geneva Bible (1560) records Acts 12:4 like this, "And when he had caught him, he put him in prison, and deliuered him to foure quaternions of souldiers to be kept, intending after the Passeouer to bring him foorth to the people."

In the original, pascha means Passover. It was changed by the KJV translators. Why? I am not sure. But, it was definitely changed. There is no reason for the change.

https://media2.giphy.com/media/ph6ewybUlGbW8/200.gif

[Sean]

No, because some are not just parrots for someone else without understanding why they believe what they believe.


No you were not. We all know that already. You were NOT just sharing someone elses view. You believe that imbecile's assertions



Prax, this man had a great explanation of the word Easter in the post. You called him an imbecile for proving the word Easter meant "dawn" or "sunrise".

Cant you see your religious bias flaring up here?

The mans' point of view is very articulate, yet you think he is completely wrong, and insisting the KJV translators are imbeciles for using the word "Easter" in the process of translation.

You guys got your false assumption that "Easter" is a pagan ritual in Herods' day by an author named Alexander Hislop(the 2 Babylons). I have the book in my study, but the guy was wrong on the idea that "Easter" was Herods' bunny worship day.

[Sean]

The Geneva Bible (1560) records Acts 12:4 like this, "And when he had caught him, he put him in prison, and deliuered him to foure quaternions of souldiers to be kept, intending after the Passeouer to bring him foorth to the people."

In the original, pascha means Passover. It was changed by the KJV translators. Why? I am not sure. But, it was definitely changed. There is no reason for the change.




Untraditional...read the original link.

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

The word used "Easter" simply means "dawn" or "sunrise" 400 years ago.

The guys thought all along that "Easter" means "Astartis"(wrongly assumed by Alexander Hislop)

[Evang.Benincasa]

The German fertility Goddess was Ostara, who was associated with fertility of both humans and crops. Ostara mated with the solar god on the Spring Equinox and nine months later she gave birth to a child around the Winter Solstice at 21st/22nd of December. The Saxon name for the Germanic lunar goddess Ostara was Eostre. Her festival was held at the full moon after the Spring Equinox and the Catholics adopted this determination for their Easter.

[Esaias]

Easter is only used among English speakers. All other languages (German excepted, perhaps? Dunno...} use a local derivative of pesach (passover). So the Greeks, Russians, Coptics, etc clebrate pascha (or whatever it is called in their language). Unfortunately, they keep it on the wrong date and with a bunch of pagan practices added on.

[Esaias]

The point is pascha doesn't mean dawn or east or sunrise. Get it yet?

Well, the Anglo Saxons referred to Pascha as the Rising (resurrection day) because the anti-Quartodecimans who dominated the catholic church (East and West) made Pascha into a celebration of the resurrection more so than a commemoration of the Lord's death. So Pascha came to be associated with Resurrection, thus the Anglo Saxons spoke of it as the Resurrection or Rising Day (Easter). The sun rises in the east, so 'east' was known as the direction of rising. The two concepts, rising, and east, are conflated in the word Easter.

I think the connection to Eostre is more linguistic than theological. I don't think the term Easter was chosen in order to make a connection with a pagan goddess, but simply due to the language norms of the English people at that time. I still haven't figured out, though, why the term "Passover" wasn't used, like it is in virtually every other language...

[FlamingZword]

Well, the Anglo Saxons referred to Pascha as the Rising (resurrection day) because the anti-Quartodecimans who dominated the catholic church (East and West) made Pascha into a celebration of the resurrection more so than a commemoration of the Lord's death. So Pascha came to be associated with Resurrection, thus the Anglo Saxons spoke of it as the Resurrection or Rising Day (Easter). The sun rises in the east, so 'east' was known as the direction of rising. The two concepts, rising, and east, are conflated in the word Easter.

I think the connection to Eostre is more linguistic than theological. I don't think the term Easter was chosen in order to make a connection with a pagan goddess, but simply due to the language norms of the English people at that time. I still haven't figured out, though, why the term "Passover" wasn't used, like it is in virtually every other language...

Dear Esaias

You are mistaken, even though almost every other language uses the term "Passover", all of them are wrong, because God only speaks the Elizabethan English of 1611. Doest thou not know that?

Salvation can only be achieved thru the 1611 KJV, sorry about all those millions of people in other countries, but until they learn to understand proper English, they will be lost.

So forget about sending them Bibles in their own language, you need to sent them courses on how to learn English, and not just any English, it must be Elizabethan English. :D

[Evang.Benincasa]

Well, the Anglo Saxons referred to Pascha as the Rising (resurrection day) because the anti-Quartodecimans who dominated the catholic church (East and West) made Pascha into a celebration of the resurrection more so than a commemoration of the Lord's death. So Pascha came to be associated with Resurrection, thus the Anglo Saxons spoke of it as the Resurrection or Rising Day (Easter). The sun rises in the east, so 'east' was known as the direction of rising. The two concepts, rising, and east, are conflated in the word Easter.

I think the connection to Eostre is more linguistic than theological. I don't think the term Easter was chosen in order to make a connection with a pagan goddess, but simply due to the language norms of the English people at that time. I still haven't figured out, though, why the term "Passover" wasn't used, like it is in virtually every other language...

Eastern Greek, Russian Orthodox, and Copts call it Πάσχα. Easter is only used by English speakers, Germans, Oster Sonntag, or Easter Sunday. Still a pagan word borrowed by English and German speakers. Also brought into the English Bible by William Tyndale attempting to use Easter to replace the Greek Πάσχα. KJV translators left Easter while continuing to use passover in other verses. Herod would never even heard of the word, and definitely no first century A.D. Judean celebrated a rising of the sun feast called Easter.

[Sean]

No, better yet, buy FZ's translation that he is trying to invent Esaias...LOL

[Praxeas]

Prax, this man had a great explanation of the word Easter in the post..
No he didn't. We've disproven it already. Humble yourself and learn.

Easter does NOT mean Resurrection nor Passover. Case closed

[Evang.Benincasa]

Dear Esaias

You are mistaken, even though almost every other language uses the term "Passover", all of them are wrong, because God only speaks the Elizabethan English of 1611. Doest thou not know that?

Salvation can only be achieved thru the 1611 KJV, sorry about all those millions of people in other countries, but until they learn to understand proper English, they will be lost.

So forget about sending them Bibles in their own language, you need to sent them courses on how to learn English, and not just any English, it must be Elizabethan English. :D

https://media4.giphy.com/media/ph6ewybUlGbW8/200.gif

[Evang.Benincasa]

No he didn't. We've disproven it already. Humble yourself and learn.

Easter does NOT mean Resurrection nor Passover. Case closed

Amen. :thumbsup

[Sean]

No he didn't. We've disproven it already. Humble yourself and learn.

Easter does NOT mean Resurrection nor Passover. Case closed



Case closed?

Cmon Prax, you called the man and all 57 translators of the KJV "imbeciles" to make your case.

This one is still open, in my opinion.

[Praxeas]

The verse in Acts is speaking specifically, explicitly about Passover, not Resurrection, not East or West nor any other direction. Its speaking about the Jewish Holy Day

[Evang.Benincasa]

the verse in acts is speaking specifically, explicitly about passover, not resurrection, not east or west nor any other direction. Its speaking about the jewish holy day

Hello!!!!

[Sean]

The verse in Acts is speaking specifically, explicitly about Passover, not Resurrection, not East or West nor any other direction. Its speaking about the Jewish Holy Day




The word "easter" is speaking of the "sunrise".....

4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people......

18 Now as soon as it was day, there was no small stir among the soldiers, what was become of Peter.


The next sunrise Prax, look what happened.

[Sean]

19 And when Herod had sought for him, and found him not,

[Sean]

Did Herod seek him just to chat?

[Evang.Benincasa]

https://media0.giphy.com/media/12GW2qILPhaenm/200.gif

[Sean]

https://media0.giphy.com/media/12GW2qILPhaenm/200.gif



The class clown(Evang.Benincasa):helicopter is at it again...LOL

[Evang.Benincasa]

The class clown:helicopter is at it again...LOL

I'm the class clown and YOU post this insanity?

The word "easter" is speaking of the "sunrise".....

4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people......

18 Now as soon as it was day, there was no small stir among the soldiers, what was become of Peter.


The next sunrise Prax, look what happened.

Sean, you have to be the worst defender of the KJV, I have ever witnessed.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Sean, the Greek says after the passover not after the sunrise, or after the east.

[Sean]

The Greek word, "πασχα (pascha)", is correctly translated as "Passover" 28 times in the New Testament in the KJV. For this reason, some critics say that the KJV's isolated instance of translating the word as "Easter" in Acts 12:4 is an error. These critics agree with translations such as the ESV which has "Passover" in Acts 12:4. This article explains why the KJV is correct in translating "Pascha" as "Easter" in Acts 12:4. To begin with, we must set the record straight that "Easter" is not a pagan word.


http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Esaias]

Eastern Greek, Russian Orthodox, and Copts call it Πάσχα. Easter is only used by English speakers, Germans, Oster Sonntag, or Easter Sunday. Still a pagan word borrowed by English and German speakers. Also brought into the English Bible by William Tyndale attempting to use Easter to replace the Greek Πάσχα. KJV translators left Easter while continuing to use passover in other verses. Herod would never even heard of the word, and definitely no first century A.D. Judean celebrated a rising of the sun feast called Easter.

Was it a pagan word "borrowed" by Anglo-Saxon speakers? What was it's actual meaning in pre-Christian Anglo-Saxon? That would be helpful to know.

Now, by the time of King James, 'Easter" was well entrenched as the English name for the Passover holy day (as celebrated by the catholic churches). Still not sure why in one instance the translators used Easter instead of Passover. I also don't think anybody would have thought Herod was waiting for the Sunday Resurrection Mass to be over with.

[Evang.Benincasa]

The Greek word, "πασχα (pascha)", is correctly translated as "Passover" 28 times in the New Testament in the KJV. For this reason, some critics say that the KJV's isolated instance of translating the word as "Easter" in Acts 12:4 is an error. These critics agree with translations such as the ESV which has "Passover" in Acts 12:4. This article explains why the KJV is correct in translating "Pascha" as "Easter" in Acts 12:4. To begin with, we must set the record straight that "Easter" is not a pagan word.


http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j...99804247,d.cGU

Easter doesn't mean Passover either.

https://media1.giphy.com/media/nYogYgSmIJaIo/200.gif

[Sean]

Myth 1: the KJV translators used "Easter" to refer to a pagan festival

Myth 2: "Easter" comes from the goddess named "Ishtar" or "Astarte"

Myth 3: "Easter" comes from the goddess named "Eostre"

"Easter" means "dawn"

Myth 4: "Easter" is tainted by residual pagan etymology

Myth 5: "Easter eggs" and "Easter bunnies" discredit Easter

Myth 6: The calculation of the date of Easter is pagan

"Pascha" means Easter today

Now that it has been demonstrated that "Easter" is a biblical word referring to the day to celebrate Christ's resurrection, it will be shown why the KJV is correct in translating "Πάσχα (Pascha)" as "Easter" at Acts 12:4. For starters, here are some modern Greek-English dictionaries showing that at least in modern Greek the primary meaning of "Pascha" is "Easter", not "Passover":....


http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU






Just read the rest of the post sir!

[Evang.Benincasa]

Was it a pagan word "borrowed" by Anglo-Saxon speakers? What was it's actual meaning in pre-Christian Anglo-Saxon? That would be helpful to know.

Now, by the time of King James, 'Easter" was well entrenched as the English name for the Passover holy day (as celebrated by the catholic churches). Still not sure why in one instance the translators used Easter instead of Passover. I also don't think anybody would have thought Herod was waiting for the Sunday Resurrection Mass to be over with.

Passover was still called pesha in English by the translator John Wycliffe when he translated the Greek into English. He never even dreamed of employing Easter to mean Passover. The Latin Vulgate which was the main Bible for the Catholic (including early protestants) use the Latin pascha. Therefore Wycliffe translates the verse using his "paske."

[Sean]

http://www.kjvtoday.com/_/rsrc/1372046302363/home/easter-or-passover-in-acts-124/Oxford%20Greek-English%20Learner%27s%20Dictionary%20%28Oxford%20U P%202012%29.jpg?height=208&width=400

[Sean]

http://www.kjvtoday.com/_/rsrc/1372045915816/home/easter-or-passover-in-acts-124/Collins%20Greek-English%20Dictionary%20%28HarperCollins2003%29.jpg ?height=345&width=400

[Sean]

http://www.kjvtoday.com/_/rsrc/1372046165156/home/easter-or-passover-in-acts-124/Divry%27s%20Modern%20English-Greek%20and%20Greek-English%20Desk%20Dictionary%20%28D.C.%20Divry%2019 91%29%201.jpg?height=152&width=400

[Sean]

http://www.kjvtoday.com/_/rsrc/1372046187110/home/easter-or-passover-in-acts-124/Divry%27s%20Modern%20English-Greek%20and%20Greek-English%20Desk%20Dictionary%20%28D.C.%20Divry%2019 91%29%202.jpg?height=152&width=400

[Sean]

Must I spoon feed you?

[Sean]

https://7872ace7-a-62cb3a1a-s-sites.googlegroups.com/site/kjvtoday/home/easter-or-passover-in-acts-124/Passover%20Timeline%202.jpg?attachauth=ANoY7coV0BZ hwPo52NGxkoetAWjNd6WK8TdBnTp5jCmpkvLFGuD4yDZTvqUZX BtsRAbDeQ8ts6Ey3nYkD0zQYZGlusLoaIbkq9vJgD0jBPy7GTM w5umC4-ybEl13PeEZi8P-7OpSNFas6ibxctiNtPKCrPLn6sOw6mKtUXRNlVoumWfp8PpY0f fZtoGkZqw_tYxJ1Vhho2nmGhoJRJ-d6cu9oX9bs8xwhtl59gkVCzkkX8vsxnAm1nSCsiqdGllWojF-d2qNhQTayJ42t7r4tLgkb17l4u8DVw%3D%3D&attredirects=0

[Sean]

Must I spoon feed you?

?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Myth 1: the KJV translators used "Easter" to refer to a pagan festival

Myth 2: "Easter" comes from the goddess named "Ishtar" or "Astarte"

Myth 3: "Easter" comes from the goddess named "Eostre"

"Easter" means "dawn"

Myth 4: "Easter" is tainted by residual pagan etymology

Myth 5: "Easter eggs" and "Easter bunnies" discredit Easter

Myth 6: The calculation of the date of Easter is pagan

"Pascha" means Easter today

Now that it has been demonstrated that "Easter" is a biblical word referring to the day to celebrate Christ's resurrection, it will be shown why the KJV is correct in translating "Πάσχα (Pascha)" as "Easter" at Acts 12:4. For starters, here are some modern Greek-English dictionaries showing that at least in modern Greek the primary meaning of "Pascha" is "Easter", not "Passover":....


http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU






Just read the rest of the post sir!

Read it, but explain why it is correctly translated in other verses as passover instead of how William Tyndale translated it as easter? Matthew 26:17-19, John 11:55, Luke 2:41-42, John 6:4, Luke 22:15, Mark 14:12-16, Luke 22:7-13, John 2:23, and 1 Corinthians 5:7. Why did the KJV translators fail to use the word Easter in these passages?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Must I spoon feed you?

Sean, you need that one teach you. ;)

[Sean]

To the KJV translator, the word "easter" simply meant "sunrise" or "dawn"...thats it.

[Sean]

https://7872ace7-a-62cb3a1a-s-sites.googlegroups.com/site/kjvtoday/home/easter-or-passover-in-acts-124/Passover%20Timeline%202.jpg?attachauth=ANoY7coV0BZ hwPo52NGxkoetAWjNd6WK8TdBnTp5jCmpkvLFGuD4yDZTvqUZX BtsRAbDeQ8ts6Ey3nYkD0zQYZGlusLoaIbkq9vJgD0jBPy7GTM w5umC4-ybEl13PeEZi8P-7OpSNFas6ibxctiNtPKCrPLn6sOw6mKtUXRNlVoumWfp8PpY0f fZtoGkZqw_tYxJ1Vhho2nmGhoJRJ-d6cu9oX9bs8xwhtl59gkVCzkkX8vsxnAm1nSCsiqdGllWojF-d2qNhQTayJ42t7r4tLgkb17l4u8DVw%3D%3D&attredirects=0






Well?

[Sean]

http://www.kjvtoday.com/_/rsrc/1372046302363/home/easter-or-passover-in-acts-124/Oxford%20Greek-English%20Learner%27s%20Dictionary%20%28Oxford%20U P%202012%29.jpg?height=208&width=400




Read it

[Sean]

http://www.kjvtoday.com/_/rsrc/1372045915816/home/easter-or-passover-in-acts-124/Collins%20Greek-English%20Dictionary%20%28HarperCollins2003%29.jpg ?height=345&width=400


Read it

[Sean]

http://www.kjvtoday.com/_/rsrc/1372046165156/home/easter-or-passover-in-acts-124/Divry%27s%20Modern%20English-Greek%20and%20Greek-English%20Desk%20Dictionary%20%28D.C.%20Divry%2019 91%29%201.jpg?height=152&width=400


Read it

[Evang.Benincasa]

To the KJV translator, the word "easter" simply meant "sunrise" or "dawn"...thats it.

Then you are proving that the KJV translators were translating the Greek word incorrectly? The Greek uses Πάσχα which means passover. Not sunrise. :)

[Sean]

http://www.kjvtoday.com/_/rsrc/1372046187110/home/easter-or-passover-in-acts-124/Divry%27s%20Modern%20English-Greek%20and%20Greek-English%20Desk%20Dictionary%20%28D.C.%20Divry%2019 91%29%202.jpg?height=152&width=400


Read it

[Sean]

Spoon feeding the evangelist....LOL

[Evang.Benincasa]

Read it

I did, but we have you here, you are the KJV defender. Why can't you explain?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Spoon feeding the evangelist....LOL

Seemingly not, because you refuse to explain, or answer questions?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Read it, but explain why it is correctly translated in other verses as passover instead of how William Tyndale translated it as easter? Matthew 26:17-19, John 11:55, Luke 2:41-42, John 6:4, Luke 22:15, Mark 14:12-16, Luke 22:7-13, John 2:23, and 1 Corinthians 5:7. Why did the KJV translators fail to use the word Easter in these passages?


Sean?

[Sean]

Read the entire post and question him...it is not about me, but his subject here.

[Sean]

Here it is...http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Evang.Benincasa]

Read the entire post and question him...it is not about me, but his subject here.

So, you don't even know the information you posted? You don't know the subject well enough to SPOON FEED THE EVANGELIST? :lol

[Evang.Benincasa]

Read it, but explain why it is correctly translated in other verses as passover instead of how William Tyndale translated it as easter? Matthew 26:17-19, John 11:55, Luke 2:41-42, John 6:4, Luke 22:15, Mark 14:12-16, Luke 22:7-13, John 2:23, and 1 Corinthians 5:7. Why did the KJV translators fail to use the word Easter in these passages?

Here it is... ;)

[Evang.Benincasa]

Sean you are a joker :lol

[Sean]

I guess that means you REFUSE to read his material, but still argue with it....LOL

[Evang.Benincasa]

Everyone should follow your postings because you are one cut and paste character. :heeheehee

[Evang.Benincasa]

I guess that means you REFUSE to read his material, but still argue with it....LOL

So, you don't even know the information you posted? You don't know the subject well enough to spoon feed?

[Evang.Benincasa]

You refuse Sean?

[Sean]

Looks like the "evangelists" belief system will not let him read it...LOL

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Evang.Benincasa]

Spoon feed

[Evang.Benincasa]

Looks like the "evangelists" belief system will not let him read it...LOL

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

Looks like you are unable to answer my questions? :lol

[Sean]

Religious bias?....naaaah!

[Evang.Benincasa]

Spoon feed


:heeheehee

[Sean]

Read the entire post and question him...it is not about me, but his subject here.



http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Evang.Benincasa]

Religious bias?....naaaah!

Sean, you just don't know what you are cut and pasting, so you just go to Brother Google, and find things which sound good to you. But when challenged you dodge?

[Sean]

http://www.kjvtoday.com/_/rsrc/1333761971300/home/easter-or-passover-in-acts-124/Easter.JPG?height=400&width=257

[Sean]

Read it!

[Evang.Benincasa]

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

Sean, I think you are the one who needs to read the above. :slaphappy

[Evang.Benincasa]

Read it!

Did you?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Read it, but explain why it is correctly translated in other verses as passover instead of how William Tyndale translated it as easter? Matthew 26:17-19, John 11:55, Luke 2:41-42, John 6:4, Luke 22:15, Mark 14:12-16, Luke 22:7-13, John 2:23, and 1 Corinthians 5:7. Why did the KJV translators fail to use the word Easter in these passages?

Sean, answer it. :)

[Evang.Benincasa]

Read it, but explain why it is correctly translated in other verses as passover instead of how William Tyndale translated it as easter? Matthew 26:17-19, John 11:55, Luke 2:41-42, John 6:4, Luke 22:15, Mark 14:12-16, Luke 22:7-13, John 2:23, and 1 Corinthians 5:7. Why did the KJV translators fail to use the word Easter in these passages?

Sean, spoon feed! :)

[Sean]

Sean, you just don't know what you are cut and pasting, so you just go to Brother Google, and find things which sound good to you. But when challenged you dodge?



This mans' post is better than anything I can produce on the subject...read it then denounce it to us.(Prax says he is an imbecile), therefore it should be easy.

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Evang.Benincasa]

The Bible describes Christ's resurrection as being discovered in the "morning" at "dawn" or at "the rising of the sun" (see John 20:1 where it says the stone was already rolled aside while "it was yet dark"):
"In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre." (Matthew 28:1)
"And very early in the morning the first day of the week, they came unto the sepulchre at the rising of the sun." (Mark 16:2)
"Now upon the first day of the week, very early in the morning, they came unto the sepulchre, bringing the spices which they had prepared, and certain others with them." (Luke 24:1)

Sean, please explain the above?

[Sean]

Please, no cartoons though!

[Evang.Benincasa]

This mans' post is better than anything I can produce on the subject...read it then denounce it to us.(Prax says he is an imbecile), therefore it should be easy.

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

No, I believe you were called an imbecile first, because you cut and paste articles written by imbeciles. :)

[Sean]

The Bible describes Christ's resurrection as being discovered in the "morning" at "dawn" or at "the rising of the sun" (see John 20:1 where it says the stone was already rolled aside while "it was yet dark"):
"In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre." (Matthew 28:1)
"And very early in the morning the first day of the week, they came unto the sepulchre at the rising of the sun." (Mark 16:2)
"Now upon the first day of the week, very early in the morning, they came unto the sepulchre, bringing the spices which they had prepared, and certain others with them." (Luke 24:1)

Sean, please explain the above?




It is explained in the mans' post...http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

Read it!

[Evang.Benincasa]

Please, no cartoons though!

Answer my post.

[Sean]

https://7872ace7-a-62cb3a1a-s-sites.googlegroups.com/site/kjvtoday/home/easter-or-passover-in-acts-124/Passover%20Timeline%202.jpg?attachauth=ANoY7cok1Mz aQNEgUc4gsBLIJwrVOMnJl3cekKPw18DmzwEXGipsRXItgm85L V5eZcLA5yK48viIgqXEi184Ilw6j1lyPJQsZCVTKLVB3qIbqLX l_VaC1yUvvBSEAxodMqKqXiiprco8QiUdtWNzjT1zAz7i60zeM chMJxPKNQ84FUd-9qHz4Z3_cbWp1WHPeXBbAGmHGS4wCkshf6cm2z4LzSnV3tRNZ3 pV8Ec8tPKl6z3_iPtaDq_SLaRrdnAL_LvV9jESTdin_6Nz_zWR Pu-ovDMoeaqQqg%3D%3D&attredirects=0

[Sean]

There it is

[Evang.Benincasa]

It is explained in the mans' post...http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

Read it!

Sean, you didn't read it?

You really didn't read it?

Just like you never read any of Gail Riplinger's material, but just watched her video?

[Evang.Benincasa]

The Bible describes Christ's resurrection as being discovered in the "morning" at "dawn" or at "the rising of the sun" (see John 20:1 where it says the stone was already rolled aside while "it was yet dark"):
"In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre." (Matthew 28:1)
"And very early in the morning the first day of the week, they came unto the sepulchre at the rising of the sun." (Mark 16:2)
"Now upon the first day of the week, very early in the morning, they came unto the sepulchre, bringing the spices which they had prepared, and certain others with them." (Luke 24:1)

Sean, please explain the above?

Yes, here it is. :)

[Sean]

yep...

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Evang.Benincasa]

Read it, but explain why it is correctly translated in other verses as passover instead of how William Tyndale translated it as easter? Matthew 26:17-19, John 11:55, Luke 2:41-42, John 6:4, Luke 22:15, Mark 14:12-16, Luke 22:7-13, John 2:23, and 1 Corinthians 5:7. Why did the KJV translators fail to use the word Easter in these passages?

Spoon feed :)

[Sean]

https://7872ace7-a-62cb3a1a-s-sites.googlegroups.com/site/kjvtoday/home/easter-or-passover-in-acts-124/Passover%20Timeline%202.jpg?attachauth=ANoY7cok1Mz aQNEgUc4gsBLIJwrVOMnJl3cekKPw18DmzwEXGipsRXItgm85L V5eZcLA5yK48viIgqXEi184Ilw6j1lyPJQsZCVTKLVB3qIbqLX l_VaC1yUvvBSEAxodMqKqXiiprco8QiUdtWNzjT1zAz7i60zeM chMJxPKNQ84FUd-9qHz4Z3_cbWp1WHPeXBbAGmHGS4wCkshf6cm2z4LzSnV3tRNZ3 pV8Ec8tPKl6z3_iPtaDq_SLaRrdnAL_LvV9jESTdin_6Nz_zWR Pu-ovDMoeaqQqg%3D%3D&attredirects=0




Now look at this timeline okay?

[Evang.Benincasa]

yep...

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

I read it, and I posted questions for you who posted the article.

You loose. :)

[Sean]

"Pascha" meant Easter to Luke, the narrator of Acts 12:4

Whether "Πάσχα" should be Passover or Easter at Acts 12:4 must be determined by discerning who is using the word in this instance. If the word is used by a Jew, then the word would mean Passover. If the word is used by Herod, then the word would mean Passover or perhaps a pagan festival (although the possibility of "Πάσχα" referring to a pagan festival has no basis in history or etymology). Contrary to what many believe, it is neither the Jews nor Herod who is using the word "Πάσχα" at Acts 12:4. It is actually Luke, the Christian narrator of Acts, who is using the word "Πάσχα" to describe the timeline of events for his Christian readers in the latter first century, many of whom were Gentile Christians. At the time of Luke's writing, "Πάσχα" at Acts 12:4 was no longer the Passover but Easter. When Luke speaks in Acts 12:4 as narrator, he is using words according to the mutual Christian perspective of himself and his readers. This is evident because he uses the word "church" (εκκλησία) at Acts 12:1 to refer to Christians. This is a dignifying Christian word to refer to the congregation of those who are called out by God. Neither Herod nor the Jews would have referred to these rebels as "the called-out ones". However, when coming from a Christian narrator for a Christian audience, the word "εκκλησία" carries a Christian meaning. The same goes for the word "πασχα". It may well be that Herod and the Jews had no concern or knowledge about Easter. Although Herod and the Jews were waiting for the Jewish Passover, Luke uses "πασχα" according to its Christian meaning of "Easter" to explain the timeline of events to his Christian readers. That is why "πασχα" is Easter in Acts 12:4.

[Evang.Benincasa]

The Bible describes Christ's resurrection as being discovered in the "morning" at "dawn" or at "the rising of the sun" (see John 20:1 where it says the stone was already rolled aside while "it was yet dark"):
"In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre." (Matthew 28:1)
"And very early in the morning the first day of the week, they came unto the sepulchre at the rising of the sun." (Mark 16:2)
"Now upon the first day of the week, very early in the morning, they came unto the sepulchre, bringing the spices which they had prepared, and certain others with them." (Luke 24:1)

Sean, please explain the above?

Answer my post.

[Sean]

Meanwhile....the "evangelist" BASHES the KJV...LOL

[Evang.Benincasa]

"Pascha" meant Easter to Luke, the narrator of Acts 12:4

Whether "Πάσχα" should be Passover or Easter at Acts 12:4 must be determined by discerning who is using the word in this instance. If the word is used by a Jew, then the word would mean Passover. If the word is used by Herod, then the word would mean Passover or perhaps a pagan festival (although the possibility of "Πάσχα" referring to a pagan festival has no basis in history or etymology). Contrary to what many believe, it is neither the Jews nor Herod who is using the word "Πάσχα" at Acts 12:4. It is actually Luke, the Christian narrator of Acts, who is using the word "Πάσχα" to describe the timeline of events for his Christian readers in the latter first century, many of whom were Gentile Christians. At the time of Luke's writing, "Πάσχα" at Acts 12:4 was no longer the Passover but Easter. When Luke speaks in Acts 12:4 as narrator, he is using words according to the mutual Christian perspective of himself and his readers. This is evident because he uses the word "church" (εκκλησία) at Acts 12:1 to refer to Christians. This is a dignifying Christian word to refer to the congregation of those who are called out by God. Neither Herod nor the Jews would have referred to these rebels as "the called-out ones". However, when coming from a Christian narrator for a Christian audience, the word "εκκλησία" carries a Christian meaning. The same goes for the word "πασχα". It may well be that Herod and the Jews had no concern or knowledge about Easter. Although Herod and the Jews were waiting for the Jewish Passover, Luke uses "πασχα" according to its Christian meaning of "Easter" to explain the timeline of events to his Christian readers. That is why "πασχα" is Easter in Acts 12:4.

That is all his opinion? Πάσχα was still used by Christians to denote their own passover, which is Jesus Christ found in 1st Corinthians 5:7? Why doesn't it say in 1st Corinthians 5:7 Jesus our Easter? Answer?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Meanwhile....the "evangelist" BASHES the KJV...LOL

No, YOU bash the KJV.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Sean, you are a knucklehead. :heeheehee

[Evang.Benincasa]

That is all his opinion? Πάσχα was still used by Christians to denote their own passover, which is Jesus Christ found in 1st Corinthians 5:7? Why doesn't it say in 1st Corinthians 5:7 Jesus our Easter? Answer?

Sean?

[Evang.Benincasa]

That is all his opinion? Πάσχα was still used by Christians to denote their own passover, which is Jesus Christ found in 1st Corinthians 5:7? Why doesn't it say in 1st Corinthians 5:7 Jesus our Easter? Answer?

Sean did you go back and read more of that article?

Answer?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Sean, you are the worst KJV apologist I have ever seen.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Your Bible studies have to be gladiator school.

[Evang.Benincasa]

"Pascha" meant Easter to Luke, the narrator of Acts 12:4

Whether "Πάσχα" should be Passover or Easter at Acts 12:4 must be determined by discerning who is using the word in this instance. If the word is used by a Jew, then the word would mean Passover. If the word is used by Herod, then the word would mean Passover or perhaps a pagan festival (although the possibility of "Πάσχα" referring to a pagan festival has no basis in history or etymology). Contrary to what many believe, it is neither the Jews nor Herod who is using the word "Πάσχα" at Acts 12:4. It is actually Luke, the Christian narrator of Acts, who is using the word "Πάσχα" to describe the timeline of events for his Christian readers in the latter first century, many of whom were Gentile Christians. At the time of Luke's writing, "Πάσχα" at Acts 12:4 was no longer the Passover but Easter. When Luke speaks in Acts 12:4 as narrator, he is using words according to the mutual Christian perspective of himself and his readers. This is evident because he uses the word "church" (εκκλησία) at Acts 12:1 to refer to Christians. This is a dignifying Christian word to refer to the congregation of those who are called out by God. Neither Herod nor the Jews would have referred to these rebels as "the called-out ones". However, when coming from a Christian narrator for a Christian audience, the word "εκκλησία" carries a Christian meaning. The same goes for the word "πασχα". It may well be that Herod and the Jews had no concern or knowledge about Easter. Although Herod and the Jews were waiting for the Jewish Passover, Luke uses "πασχα" according to its Christian meaning of "Easter" to explain the timeline of events to his Christian readers. That is why "πασχα" is Easter in Acts 12:4.

Luke meant for people in the 17th century to translate πασχα as Easter?

Sean, your writer of your article is an imbecile.

[Evang.Benincasa]

The etymology of "Easter" is similar to that of Aνατελλω

"Easter" is etymologically related to "east" (the direction) and refers to the "rising" of our Lord. This connection between the eastern direction and the resurrection makes some Christians nervous about a possible pagan influence. However, there is no reason for such concern because this connection between the eastern direction and the verb "to rise" is even found in the language in which the New Testament was written. The Greek verb "ανατελλω (anatello)" means "to rise" (Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon) and it is the word translated as "arise" in the above passage in 2 Peter 1:19 about Christ rising in our hearts. It is also the word used in Hebrews 7:14 which says that our Lord "sprang out of Juda". And "ανατελλω" is related to the word, "ανατολη (anatole)", which means, "the east (the direction of the sun’s rising)" (Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon). So there is a connection between the eastern direction and the verb "to rise" even in the language of the New Testament. The writers of the New Testament did not avoid using the verb "ανατελλω" (to rise) despite its derivation from the Greek word for "east".

The Greek word ανατελλω has nothing to do with the Greek word πάσχα.

Good God from Zion!

Sean, come back and explain the above to me you mad man!

Sean, you better get some big spoons! :lol

[Sean]

Luke meant for people in the 17th century to translate πασχα as Easter?

Sean, your writer of your article is an imbecile.




No, the KJV translators understood the word "easter" as "sunrise". It was an English word for "dawn or sunrise", unlike it as used today.

Just like the meaning of "gay", etc. has changed through time.

[Evang.Benincasa]

No, the KJV translators understood the word "easter" as "sunrise". It was an English word for "dawn or sunrise", unlike it as used today.

Just like the meaning of "gay", etc. has changed through time.

Good so explain the below post to me. :)

Read it, but explain why it is correctly translated in other verses as passover instead of how William Tyndale translated it as easter? Matthew 26:17-19, John 11:55, Luke 2:41-42, John 6:4, Luke 22:15, Mark 14:12-16, Luke 22:7-13, John 2:23, and 1 Corinthians 5:7. Why did the KJV translators fail to use the word Easter in these passages?

[Sean]

Just curious "evangelist"....why do you want the KJV translators to be wrong so badly regarding Acts 12:4?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Just curious "evangelist"....why do you want the KJV translators to be wrong so badly regarding Acts 12:4?

I don't, but you keep throwing them under the bus with your foolishness.

[Sean]

I am throwing them under the bus by trying to vindicate their translation?

[Sean]

Just curious "evangelist"....why do you want the KJV translators to be wrong so badly regarding Acts 12:4?



Do you really loathe those that think the KJV translators used "Easter" correctly?

[Evang.Benincasa]

I am throwing them under the bus by trying to vindicate their translation?

No, you aren't vindicating anyone by using that moron's article. That article is a mess, why don't you be a good fellow. Go READ what you offered us and see if you can at least answer my questions.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Do you really loathe those that think the KJV translators used "Easter" correctly?

Now here comes Sean the hater.

[Sean]

I am amazed on how you(evangelist) recklessly attack the KJV translators regarding Acts 12:4.

[Sean]

You attack any sensible explanation.

[Sean]

Why?

[Sean]

Are you preparing the way for FlamingZwords new translation?...LOL

[Evang.Benincasa]

I am amazed on how you(evangelist) recklessly attack the KJV translators regarding Acts 12:4.

Here is Sean the hater turning this into a hate fest.

Sean, you recklessly cut and pasted an article YOU NEVER READ.

[Evang.Benincasa]

You attack any sensible explanation.

Sean, your article wasn't sensible.

It was nonsensical :lol

[Evang.Benincasa]

Are you preparing the way for FlamingZwords new translation?...LOL

Sean, are you a Liar On Line?

[Sean]

Your explanation is the KJV translators got it wrong. You are really FZ arent you?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Your explanation is the KJV translators got it wrong. You are really FZ arent you?

Is this what it is all about? Is this what happens when you are challenged? You lose your mind and go into melt down. You need help.

[Sean]

The official position of the "evangelist" is the KJV translators got Acts 12:4 wrong....That is a fact...LOL

[Sean]

Do you "preach" that in churches?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Your explanation is that you have no explanation. You just go to Brother Google and seek for answers. Answers you never review first. Sean, go to your pastor, and have him to teach you something.

[Evang.Benincasa]

The official position of the "evangelist" is the KJV translators got Acts 12:4 wrong....That is a fact...LOL

Sean, you are a Liar Out Loud.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Do you "preach" that in churches?

No, I preach that people like you should be marked and avoided. Because you are bitter, and nasty when you are opposed. ;)

[Sean]

The KJV translators got Acts 12:4 right and I am elated to say it folks!

[Sean]

Too bad the "Evangelist" cannot say that.

[Evang.Benincasa]

The KJV translators got Acts 12:4 right and I am elated to say it folks!

Ok, now explain how they put easter where passover was supposed to be?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Too bad the Evangelist cannot say that.

Difference is Sean, I know why it's there. Now, can you explain why it's there?

[Sean]

They were wrong?

[Sean]

Ok, now explain how they put easter where passover was supposed to be?


Why, were they wrong?

[Evang.Benincasa]

They were wrong?

So, you are a double minded man?

Won't be the first time. :lol

[Sean]

You believe they got it wrong?

[Sean]

Where else did they get it wrong, "evangelist"?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Why, were they wrong?

Sean, explain why they used the word?

Funny?

I asked you first?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Read it, but explain why it is correctly translated in other verses as passover instead of how William Tyndale translated it as easter? Matthew 26:17-19, John 11:55, Luke 2:41-42, John 6:4, Luke 22:15, Mark 14:12-16, Luke 22:7-13, John 2:23, and 1 Corinthians 5:7. Why did the KJV translators fail to use the word Easter in these passages?

While you are at it..answer this. :)

[Sean]

I wanted your confession of how you think the KJV translators were wrong with Acts 12:4.


Now I have it!

[Evang.Benincasa]

1 Corinthians 5:7

Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye are unleavened. For even Christ our easter is sacrificed for us:

Sean, why doesn't 1st Corinthians 5:7 say the above?

[Evang.Benincasa]

I wanted your confession of how you think the KJV translators were wrong with Acts 12:4.


Now I have it!

No, you don't. You can only lie, which by the way you seemingly often do to those who dare to oppose you. ;)

[Sean]

Now, the "evangelist" teaches the KJV translators were wrong, tithing is mandatory, preterism, the "gifts" cease when we mature...LOL, etc.

I want to hear more!

[Evang.Benincasa]

Now, the "evangelist" teaches the KJV translators were wrong, tithing is mandatory, preterism, the "gifts" cease when we mature...LOL, etc.

I want to hear more!

Sean, this is why you lose friends. :heeheehee

[Sean]

I think I am gonna cry!

[Evang.Benincasa]

I think I am gonna cry!

Nope.

That will come when you stand before Jesus. :)

[Sean]

I will put in a word for you okay?

[Evang.Benincasa]

I will put in a word for you okay?

Sean, you will be too busy telling Him all the things you did for Him in His name.

[Sean]

lol

[Evang.Benincasa]

Read it, but explain why it is correctly translated in other verses as passover instead of how William Tyndale translated it as easter? Matthew 26:17-19, John 11:55, Luke 2:41-42, John 6:4, Luke 22:15, Mark 14:12-16, Luke 22:7-13, John 2:23, and 1 Corinthians 5:7. Why did the KJV translators fail to use the word Easter in these passages?

Sean?

Why don't you answer the above while you think about meeting Jesus?

[Evang.Benincasa]

lol

Are you Lost On Line? :heeheehee

[Sean]

You make me laugh!

[Evang.Benincasa]

You make me laugh!

Sadly you don't.

[Sean]

Sean?

Why don't you answer the above while you think about meeting Jesus?


It was answered in the original post, which you loathe, therefore will not read.....LOL

[Evang.Benincasa]

It was answered in the original post, which you loathe, therefore will not read.....LOL

Sean, so, you once again have proved to one and all you havn't the foggiest idea of what you are posting about. You just tripped over that guy's article read the title and posted it here. Then when you are challenged you just keep re-posting the url because you don't know your argument well enough. Sean, I pity anyone who has the misfortune of falling prey to you in their search for God.

[Evang.Benincasa]

To the KJV translator, the word "easter" simply meant "sunrise" or "dawn"...thats it.

That's Sean's answer folks.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Who is the one who shot the KJV translators in the head?

Wasn't me. :)

[Evang.Benincasa]

https://media0.giphy.com/media/12GW2qILPhaenm/200.gif

[FlamingZword]

Who is the one who shot the KJV translators in the head?

Wasn't me. :)

Me thinks you are in an endless merry go round with Sean.
I got out of playing his silly games and put him in ignore.

I believe he went to the Joseph Goebbels's school of propaganda.

"if you repeat a lie often enough and loudly enough, people will believe it"
"Joseph Goebbels, minister of Nazi propaganda"

[Sean]

Oh, now I am a Nazi...LOL

[Evang.Benincasa]

Me thinks you are in an endless merry go round with Sean.
I got out of playing his silly games and put him in ignore.

I believe he went to the Joseph Goebbels's school of propaganda.

"if you repeat a lie often enough and loudly enough, people will believe it"
"Joseph Goebbels, minister of Nazi propaganda"

Sean, doesn't even take the time to read the websites he offers the forum. He just cruises the internet and when he stumbles across something that sounds good to him he flies it up the flag pole. Sean is a mess, and I truly pity anyone who happens to have the misfortune of getting mixed up with him. In real time he must be a total blow out, because he doesn't have the ability to Google his answers when he is in face to face debate in his Bible studies. Therefore as he does here, he has to resort to misrepresenting his opposition. A waste of precious time.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Oh, now I am a Nazi...LOL

I would say to you "how does it feel?"

But it really seems like you don't have feelings. :)

[Sean]

LOL

[Evang.Benincasa]

LOL

Yes Sean, you totally have a Loss Of Light

[Esaias]

Passover was still called pesha in English by the translator John Wycliffe when he translated the Greek into English. He never even dreamed of employing Easter to mean Passover. The Latin Vulgate which was the main Bible for the Catholic (including early protestants) use the Latin pascha. Therefore Wycliffe translates the verse using his "paske."

Hmm. In the 12th century, what did the word Easter mean in England? Is there any etymological data that I can be referred to on this? (Google is overwhelmed with polemics about holidays, I can't seem to find an actual etymology of the word as used in medieval English.)

[Esaias]

http://www.tbsbibles.org/articles/the-use-of-easter-in-acts-12-4

"When Tyndale applied his talents to the translation of the New Testament from Greek into English, he was not satisfied with the use of a completely foreign word, and decided to take into account the fact that the season of the passover was known generally to English people as 'Easter', notwithstanding the lack of any actual connection between the meanings of the two words. The Greek word occurs twenty-nine times in the New Testament, and Tyndale has ester or easter fourteen times, esterlambe eleven times, esterfest once, and paschall lambe three times.

When Tyndale began his translation of the Pentateuch he was again faced with the problem in Exodus 12.11 and twenty-one other places, and no doubt recognising that easter in this context would be an anachronism he coined a new word, passover, and used it consistently in all twenty-two places. It is therefore to Tyndale that our language is indebted for this meaningful and appropriate word. His labours on the Old Testament left little time for revision of the New Testament, with the result that while passover is found in his 1530 Pentateuch, ester remained in the N.T. of 1534, having been used in his first edition several years before he coined the new word passover."

So apparently "passover" was a word invented by Tyndale as a translation of pesach. I did not know that. According to the article, prior to Tyndale the word pesach or pascha was simply transliterated as paske/pasche. But the Pascha festival (resurrection holy day) was known to English-speakers as "Easter".

And apparently, Tyndale used that term pretty much all over the new testament to translate pascha. The KJV reversed that trend, but kept it in one instance. Thus Tyndale was actually more consistent in taking into account the English usage and understanding.

"The fifteen New Testament occurrences of Easter in the Great Bible of 1539 were reduced to only one in the Authorised Version, and it seems probable that this was left inadvertently rather than intentionally, in Acts 12.4. If the translators intended to retain Easter in the Bible for ecclesiastical purposes they would hardly have been satisfied with one instance."

Now that actually makes sense.

Thus, from all I have read so far, while it is clear "Easter" is NOT a TRANSLATION of the word pascha, it is UNDERSTANDABLE as to why the word appears in the KJV. And it has NOTHING TO DO WITH HEROD WAITING FOR THE SUNRISE.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Hmm. In the 12th century, what did the word Easter mean in England? Is there any etymological data that I can be referred to on this? (Google is overwhelmed with polemics about holidays, I can't seem to find an actual etymology of the word as used in medieval English.)

You have to keep in mind as far as their religious experience it was Roman Catholic as being part of the Western portion of the Roman Empire. Therefore the Latin term was used. Yet, the John Wycliffe didn't use the word ester, or easter, but used his own made up word "paske." If their was a term normally used for Πάσχα, Wycliffe wasn't going to use it. The first time the term or word "passover" is used was by Tyndale, he created the word in 1530, yet it was also Tyndale who used the word ester, with his new word passover, sometimes in the same chapter. The KJV translators felt that they would only allow it to remain in Acts 12:4. One has to always keep in mind that the KJV was only a revision of the Bishop's Bible. Yet, the Bishop's was a revision of the Great Bible and the Great, stemmed from Tyndale's own work which used ester and passover together.

[Evang.Benincasa]

http://www.tbsbibles.org/articles/the-use-of-easter-in-acts-12-4

"When Tyndale applied his talents to the translation of the New Testament from Greek into English, he was not satisfied with the use of a completely foreign word, and decided to take into account the fact that the season of the passover was known generally to English people as 'Easter', notwithstanding the lack of any actual connection between the meanings of the two words. The Greek word occurs twenty-nine times in the New Testament, and Tyndale has ester or easter fourteen times, esterlambe eleven times, esterfest once, and paschall lambe three times.

When Tyndale began his translation of the Pentateuch he was again faced with the problem in Exodus 12.11 and twenty-one other places, and no doubt recognising that easter in this context would be an anachronism he coined a new word, passover, and used it consistently in all twenty-two places. It is therefore to Tyndale that our language is indebted for this meaningful and appropriate word. His labours on the Old Testament left little time for revision of the New Testament, with the result that while passover is found in his 1530 Pentateuch, ester remained in the N.T. of 1534, having been used in his first edition several years before he coined the new word passover."

So apparently "passover" was a word invented by Tyndale as a translation of pesach. I did not know that. According to the article, prior to Tyndale the word pesach or pascha was simply transliterated as paske/pasche. But the Pascha festival (resurrection holy day) was known to English-speakers as "Easter".

And apparently, Tyndale used that term pretty much all over the new testament to translate pascha. The KJV reversed that trend, but kept it in one instance. Thus Tyndale was actually more consistent in taking into account the English usage and understanding.

"The fifteen New Testament occurrences of Easter in the Great Bible of 1539 were reduced to only one in the Authorised Version, and it seems probable that this was left inadvertently rather than intentionally, in Acts 12.4. If the translators intended to retain Easter in the Bible for ecclesiastical purposes they would hardly have been satisfied with one instance."

Now that actually makes sense.

Thus, from all I have read so far, while it is clear "Easter" is NOT a TRANSLATION of the word pascha, it is UNDERSTANDABLE as to why the word appears in the KJV. And it has NOTHING TO DO WITH HEROD WAITING FOR THE SUNRISE.

Correct! :highfive

[Praxeas]

Case closed?

Cmon Prax, you called the man and all 57 translators of the KJV "imbeciles" to make your case.

This one is still open, in my opinion.
Read Acts...the It was referring to the passover. I already proved it. It was specifically referring to the Jewish Holy Day

[Praxeas]

The word "easter" is speaking of the "sunrise".....

4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people......

18 Now as soon as it was day, there was no small stir among the soldiers, what was become of Peter.


The next sunrise Prax, look what happened.
READ THE CONTEXT

I already showed you this so you are not uninformed

|Act 12:3 And when he saw that it was pleasing to the Jews, he proceeded to arrest Peter also. (Now this was during the feast of Unleavened Bread.)
Act 12:4 After he had arrested him, he also put him in prison, handing him over to four squads of soldiers to guard him, intending to bring him out for public trial after the Passover.

NOW THIS WAS WHEN???

FEAST OF UNLEAVENED BRFAD

Have you studied Jewish Holy Days?

Read this slower because I already posted this

Barnes
The days of unleavened bread - The Passover, or the seven days immediately succeeding the Passover, during which the Jews were required to eat bread without leaven, Exo_12:15-18. It was some time during this period that Herod chose to apprehend Peter. Why this time was selected is not known. As it was, however, a season of religious solemnity, and as Herod was desirous of showing his attachment to the religious rites of the nation (Josephus, Antiq., Exo_19:7, Exo_19:3), it is probable that he chose this period to show to them more impressively his purpose to oppose all false religions, and to maintain the existing establishments of the nation.

International Standard Bible Encyclopedia
The Passover was the annual Hebrew festival on the evening of the 14th day of the month of 'Ābhı̄bh (Abib) or Niṣan, as it was called in later times. It was followed by, and closely connected with, a 7 days' festival of maccōth, or unleavened bread, to which the name Passover was also applied by extension (Lev_23:5). Both were distinctly connected with the Exodus, which, according to tradition, they commemorate; the Passover being in imitation of the last meal in Egypt, eaten in preparation for the journey, while Yahweh, passing over the houses of the Hebrews, was slaying the firstborn of Egypt (Exo_12:12 f; Exo_13:2, Exo_13:12 ff); the maccōth festival being in memory of the first days of the journey during which this bread of haste was eaten (Exo_12:14-20).

Read that again! the word PASSOVER applied to the feast of unleavened bread too!

I repeat

It was followed by, and closely connected with, a 7 days' festival of maccōth, or unleavened bread, to which the name Passover was also applied by extension (Lev_23:5)

Ok? the word páscha refers to PASSOVER...PASSOVER was not just One day but included ALSO the feast of Unleavened Bread


feast of Unleavened Bread

Act 12:3 And when he saw that it was pleasing to the Jews, he proceeded to arrest Peter also. (Now this was during the feast of Unleavened Bread.)

During WHEN???

feast of Unleavened Bread

It was a Jewish Holy Day connected with Passover. In fact Passover actually covered both the Day of Passover but also the feast of Unleavened Bread

I'll repeat it again

International Standard Bible Encyclopedia

It was followed by, and closely connected with, a 7 days' festival of maccōth, or unleavened bread, to which the name Passover was also applied by extension (Lev_23:5)

Say What? Yes "Passover" here refers to the end of the Feast of Unleavened bread.

[Praxeas]

To the KJV translator, the word "easter" simply meant "sunrise" or "dawn"...thats it.
Then it's a Horrible translation. Pascha does not mean sunrise nor dawn


Zodhaites Greek Lexicon
}
páscha; neut. noun transliterated from the Hebr. pesach (H6453), to pass over, spare. The Passover, an exemption, immunity (Sept.: Exo_12:11, Exo_12:21). The great sacrifice and festival of the Jews which was instituted in commemoration of God's sparing the Jews when He destroyed the firstborn of the Egyptians. It was celebrated on the fourteenth day of the month Nisan. For the institution and particular laws of this festival see Ex. 12; Lev_23:5; Num_9:2-6. The later Jews made some additions. In particular they drank four cups of wine at various intervals during the paschal supper. The third of these cups, called the cup of benediction, is referred to in 1Co_10:16 (cf. Mat_26:27). In the NT, tó páscha, the Passover, may refer to the festival or to the paschal lamb.

(I) The paschal lamb, a year-old lamb or kid, slain as a sacrifice (Sept.: Exo_12:27). According to Josephus, the number of lambs sacrificed at Jerusalem in his time was 256,500. They were slain between the ninth and eleventh hour, which is from 3:00 to 5:00 p.m. Metaphorically used of Christ (1Co_5:7).

(II) Páscha also referred to the paschal supper as the commencement of the seven day festival of unleavened bread called tá ázuma (G106). See Exo_12:15 ff.; Lev_23:5 ff.

(A) It was used of the paschal supper alone (Mat_26:18 meaning to keep or celebrate the paschal supper). Heb_11:28 means that Moses instituted and kept the Passover (Sept.: Exo_12:48; Num_9:4 ff.).

(B) In a wider sense it also included the seven days of unleavened bread, the paschal festival (Mat_26:2; Mar_14:1; Luk_2:41; Luk_22:1; Joh_2:13, Joh_2:23; Joh_6:4; Joh_11:55; Joh_12:1; Joh_13:1; Joh_18:39; Joh_19:14; Act_12:4). The whole Passover is sometimes called the Feast of Unleavened Bread. See ázumos (G106), unleavened; arníon (G721), lamb; amnós (G286), sacrificial lamb; arḗn (G704), lamb.

(C) The expression "to eat the passover" means to keep the festival (Mat_26:17; Mar_14:12, Mar_14:14; Luk_22:11, Luk_22:15; Joh_18:28; Sept.: Exo_12:43 [cf. 2Ch_30:18]); "to make ready the passover" (a.t.) means to prepare for eating (Mat_26:19; Mar_14:16; Luk_22:8, Luk_22:13); to kill the passover (Mar_14:12; Luk_22:7; Sept.: Exo_12:21; Deu_16:2, Deu_16:5-6).

Say what? Yes read that again

(B) In a wider sense it also included the seven days of unleavened bread, the paschal festival (Mat_26:2; Mar_14:1; Luk_2:41; Luk_22:1; Joh_2:13, Joh_2:23; Joh_6:4; Joh_11:55; Joh_12:1; Joh_13:1; Joh_18:39; Joh_19:14; Act_12:4). The whole Passover is sometimes called the Feast of Unleavened Bread. See ázumos (G106), unleavened; arníon (G721), lamb; amnós (G286), sacrificial lamb; arḗn (G704), lamb.


Mar 14:1 Now after two days it was the Passover and the feast of Unleavened Bread, and the chief priests and the scribes were seeking how, after arresting him by stealth, they could kill him.

Luk 22:1 Now the feast of Unleavened Bread (which is called Passover) was drawing near.

Luke wrote Acts

Act 12:3 And when he saw that it was pleasing to the Jews, he proceeded to arrest Peter also. (Now this was during the feast of Unleavened Bread.)
Act 12:4 After he had arrested him, he also put him in prison, handing him over to four squads of soldiers to guard him, intending to bring him out for public trial after the Passover.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Then it's a Horrible translation. Pascha does not mean sunrise nor dawn

Sean, you haven't a clue as to what you are talking about. This is why it is YOU who shot the KJV translators in the head and rolled them under the bus.

My goodness, what is wrong with you? That pastor who you are (currently) with, absolutely must not have picked up on you yet, or is desperate for bodies, or you have already left the building and no longer with the man, because you take council from NO ONE. Not even the imbecile whose article you started this thread with.

If someone doesn't agree with you, or opposes your offerings, you will perform absolute gymnastics to justify your position. All while posting material you hurriedly find from Pastor Google.

Read the KJV you claim you love, then notice that in Acts 12:3-4 it is specifically speaking of the Jewish festival. Not the sunrise, not the east, not the goddess, not the resurrection of Jesus Christ, but the passover.

Sean, I cannot post this enough, YOUR BIBLE STUDIES MUST BE GLADIATOR SCHOOL. Because in real time, in a face to face, you don't have Google handy, or accessible. Because in a group of people while they are disagreeing with you they are not about to let you do the Google shuffle. Therefore you can only resort to what you do the best, and that is totally melt down on them. It is a wonder no one has cracked your cranium.

[Sean]

LOL

[Evang.Benincasa]

LOL

Sorry that you only have Lots Of Lemons. :heeheehee

[Sean]

Maybe this guy can help you folks validate the KJV translators....



In the late-14th century, when Wycliffe translated the first English New Testament, the English word "Passover" did not even exist yet! In the 29 places1 "pascha" occurs in the New Testament, Wycliffe used "pask" or "paske"2 - a modified version of "pascha" (following the Latin Vulgate word "pascha" which is essentially identical to the Greek word). In Tyndale's 1535 translation, most instances appear as "ester" - the three exceptions are Matt 26:17 (which has "paschall" lamb but is called the "ester" lamb just two verses later), Mark 14:12 ("pascall" lamb and "ester" lamb in the same verse), and John 18:28 ("paschall" lamb). Tyndale translated the NT before translating the OT, and although the church in general at that time (and prior) thought of the Jewish "Passover" and the Christian "Easter" as basically synonyms, Tyndale invented a new English word "Passover" when translating the OT, since "Easter" was somewhat of an anachronism since Christ's crucifixion and resurrection hadn't occurred until the NT. After Tyndale's translation, English translations began using "Passover" more and "Easter" less although it was still common to think of them as referring to the same time. For example, the 1539 Great Bible has "Easter" 15 times, and the 1568 Bishops' Bible (of which the KJV is a revision) only has "Easter" twice (John 11:55 and here in Acts 12:4).

Side note: Luther's German Bible ("the word of God in German" according to many KJV-only supporters) has "Oster" (Easter) and related words in all places, with the exception of Heb 11:28 ("Passa"). Conversely, the Reina-Valera ("the word of God in Spanish") has "Pascua" (Passover) in all 29 places (including Acts 12:4), as well as in Luke 23:54, John 19:31 and John 19:42.


William Tyndale solemnly
demonstrates his new "wrist support" invention, more commonly
known as a "book".
It is my position that "Easter" in Acts 12:4 in the KJV is not an error, if understood that from the early church until relatively recently "Passover" and "Easter" were basically synonyms and used interchangeably. The event referred to in Acts 12:4 is the Jewish week-long feast of unleavened bread (not the Christian commemoration of Christ's resurrection, nor a pagan festival), and to refer to it as "Easter" was common, even though it is no longer so. Where I do think that great error exists is in the KJV-only arguments as to why "Easter" is correct while "Passover" is wrong. Let's look at some of those arguments, comparing to what scripture says:

https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=5&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CDgQFjAEahUKEwjiy4mZ57DHAhWFMIgKHbjRB9s&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjv-only.com%2Facts12_4.html&ei=4i_SVeJSheGgBLijn9gN&usg=AFQjCNGnNP1UCHkDJ2sXG4ENwgEa3_4UAg

[Sean]

It is my position that "Easter" in Acts 12:4 in the KJV is not an error, if understood that from the early church until relatively recently "Passover" and "Easter" were basically synonyms and used interchangeably......

https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=5&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CDgQFjAEahUKEwjiy4mZ57DHAhWFMIgKHbjRB9s&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjv-only.com%2Facts12_4.html&ei=4i_SVeJSheGgBLijn9gN&usg=AFQjCNGnNP1UCHkDJ2sXG4ENwgEa3_4UAg

[Sean]

More spoon feeding....LOL

[Evang.Benincasa]

More spoon feeding....LOL

You are hopelessly smoked.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Sean, do you believe as Brian Tegart?

http://www.kjv-only.com/index.html

[Evang.Benincasa]

http://www.kjv-only.com/index.html :heeheehee

[Sean]

Here goes the "evangelist" attacking the 57 KJV translators again...LOL

[Sean]

Why dont you mock the 57 translators with cartoons, "evangelist"?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Here goes the "evangelist" attacking the 57 KJV translators again...LOL

Boys and girls, who posted this website? :lol

http://www.kjv-only.com/ripl_thechrist.html

Read this from the website you failed to review before you posted it.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Why dont you mock the 57 translators with cartoons, "evangelist"?

Sean, I don't need cartoons with you, you are a cartoon. :heeheehee

[Evang.Benincasa]

http://www.kjv-only.com/ifkjonly.html

Sean, read it!

:slaphappy

[Evang.Benincasa]

Like I said, Sean, just cruises the internet then cut and pastes whatever he falls over. Never reading, just skimming the page, and then running it up the flag pole. Sean, go and have your pastor teach you something, I pray with hope, he can help you. :)

[Sean]

Why do you hate the 57 translators "evangelist"?

They did not hate you.

They tried to help you.

[Sean]

Your lifetime goal is to prove the 57 translators wrong.

[Sean]

What a goal...LOL

[Evang.Benincasa]

Why do you hate the 57 translators "evangelist"?

They did not hate you.

They tried to help you.

Sean, you hate the KJV translators.

I think you are really a NIV change agent provocateur. :heeheehee

[Sean]

I defend them, you attack them!

[Sean]

Sean, you hate the KJV translators.

I think you are really a NIV change agent provocateur. :heeheehee



lol

[Evang.Benincasa]

Your lifetime goal is to prove the 57 translators wrong.

From what you are posting here it looks like YOU are trying to prove them wrong. :lol

To the KJV translator, the word "easter" simply meant "sunrise" or "dawn"...thats it.

[Sean]

When you coming to Cali, so I can buy your dinner?

[Evang.Benincasa]

I defend them, you attack them!

No, you blow them up! :slaphappy

http://www.kjv-only.com/ifkjonly.html

Please read your latest website!

[Sean]

Really!

[Evang.Benincasa]

When you coming to Cali, so I can buy your dinner?

Will it be served in the toilet? :heeheehee

[Evang.Benincasa]

To the KJV translator, the word "easter" simply meant "sunrise" or "dawn"...thats it.

:heeheehee

[Sean]

Will it be served in the toilet? :heeheehee



lolololol

[Evang.Benincasa]

http://www.kjv-only.com/ifnew.html

This is from the latest website which has been offered by Sean.

I hope Sean will finally read at least this website (since he is the one who posted it here) and consider its contents. No one here hates the KJV, and Sean, accuses everyone who disagrees with him on the subject as KJV haters. So, I hope everyone prays for Sean, to read THIS website. ;)

[Evang.Benincasa]

https://media0.giphy.com/media/12GW2qILPhaenm/200.gif

[Sean]

The end of the validity of the KJV translators is really what you hope, "evangelist"...LOL

[Evang.Benincasa]

The end of the validity of the KJV translators is really what you hope, "evangelist"...LOL

http://www.kjv-only.com/ifnew.html

Read it. :lol

[Sean]

I posted a particular post(offshoot of that one).

I was being non biased and used a non-KJV only site that explained that "passover" did not exist as a word 400 years ago.

Also the author explains to us that these words are interchangeable....

[Sean]

It is my position that "Easter" in Acts 12:4 in the KJV is not an error, if understood that from the early church until relatively recently "Passover" and "Easter" were basically synonyms and used interchangeably......

https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=5&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CDgQFjAEahUKEwjiy4mZ57DHAhWFMIgKHbjRB9s&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjv-only.com%2Facts12_4.html&ei=4i_SVeJSheGgBLijn9gN&usg=AFQjCNGnNP1UCHkDJ2sXG4ENwgEa3_4UAg


Here it is.

[Sean]

See, I am a nice guy after all!

[Sean]

And FZ called me a Nazi...tsk tsk....LOL

[Evang.Benincasa]

I posted a particular post(offshoot of that one).

I was being non biased and used a non-KJV only site that explained that "passover" did not exist as a word 400 years ago.

Also the author explains to us that these words are interchangeable....

Yet, the author doesn't agree with what YOU said concerning the KJV translators. They didn't use the word to describe "sunrise" or "dawn" that was your misrepresentation of the KJV translators. Because you haven't the foggiest idea of what you are arguing concerning the KJV.

To the KJV translator, the word "easter" simply meant "sunrise" or "dawn"...thats it.

So, Sean, read the website and learn something.

https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=...G4ENwgEa3_4UAg

[Evang.Benincasa]

Also when you posted the website you didn't know that it actually beat you and your original website offering senseless. You weren't being non biased, so you used a non KJV only site. That's just not true, because instead of popping in and out of the thread (which time checks of your post will attest) you would of posted that excuse, when I first caught you. Sean, get honest with yourself and with God. Take Praxeas' advice and humble yourself so you can learn. All you do here is make yourself look like a raving mad man.

[Sean]

And join you guys as the bonafide enemies of the validity of the KJV translators?

To dedicate myself to your cause in order to make the KJV translators appear to be imbiciles?

Not on your life!

[Sean]

Well, back to work...


Textus Receptus: "ον και πιασας εθετο εις φυλακην παραδους τεσσαρσιν τετραδιοις στρατιωτων φυλασσειν αυτον βουλομενος μετα το πασχα αναγαγειν αυτον τω λαω"

King James Version: "And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people."

English Standard Version: "And when he had seized him, he put him in prison, delivering him over to four squads of soldiers to guard him, intending after the Passover to bring him out to the people."

The Greek word, "πασχα (pascha)", is correctly translated as "Passover" 28 times in the New Testament in the KJV. For this reason, some critics say that the KJV's isolated instance of translating the word as "Easter" in Acts 12:4 is an error. These critics agree with translations such as the ESV which has "Passover" in Acts 12:4. This article explains why the KJV is correct in translating "Pascha" as "Easter" in Acts 12:4. To begin with, we must set the record straight that "Easter" is not a pagan word.


http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Sean]

Easter is not a pagan word


Myth 1: the KJV translators used "Easter" to refer to a pagan festival

The first myth to refute is the claim that the KJV uses "Easter" at Acts 12:4 to refer to a pagan holiday celebrated by king Herod. This myth is propagated by some KJV apologists who may be well-intentioned in upholding the inerrancy of the KJV. Yet such a myth defies what the KJV translators believed and practiced. Included in the 1611 edition of the KJV is a chart for finding the day of Easter in a given year. It is evident that the KJV translators viewed Easter as a Christian holiday. If the KJV translators considered Easter to be a Christian holiday, it is doubtful that they used it to mean a pagan holiday at Acts 12:4.

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU

[Sean]

Myth 2: "Easter" comes from the goddess named "Ishtar" or "Astarte"

Those who propagate myth 1 typically identify Herod's pagan holiday as that of the Semitic goddess, Ishtar or Astarte. This false connection between "Easter" and these names of a Semitic goddess can be traced to the work of the Scottish minister Alexander Hislop. Hislop was an outspoken critic of Roman Catholicism. His book The Two Babylons exposed many of the unbiblical doctrines and practices of Roman Catholicism. However, Hislop erred when it came to statements about the etymological relationship between Easter and the ancient idols, Ishtar or Astarte. At page 103 of his book, he writes:

What means the term Easter itself? It is not a Christian name. It bears its Chaldean origin on its very forehead. Easter is nothing else than Astarte, one of the titles of Beltis, the queen of heaven, whose name, as pronounced by the people of Nineveh, was evidently identical with that now in common use in this country. That name, as found by Layard on the Assyrian monuments, is Ishtar. (Alexander Hislop, The Two Babylons (1858), p. 103)

Sure enough, "Ishtar" (a form of "Astarte") may sound similar to "Easter", but the two words are not etymologically related. Astarte is "עשׁתּרות (ashtarot)" in Hebrew. This name is derived from the word "עשׁתּרה (‛ashterâh)" which means "increase" or "flock" (Brown-Driver-Briggs’ Hebrew Definitions). "עשׁתּרה (‛ashterâh)" is translated as "flocks" four times in the KJV. Hence, the name "Astarte" or "Ishtar" is a Semitic word related to animal fertility. This makes sense because Astarte was regarded as a goddess of fertility.

The etymology of "Easter" on the other hand has nothing to do with "flocks" or animal fertility. "Easter" ("Ostern" in German) is a Germanic word derived from the word "east" ("Ost" in German). Today, "east" refers to the direction from which the sun rises. The direction of east goes by that name because the Saxon word "east" meant "dawn", "sunrise" or "morning". The etymology of "east" is as follows:
"Old English east "east, easterly, eastward," from Proto-Germanic *aus-to-, *austra- "east, toward the sunrise" (cf. Old Frisian ast "east," aster "eastward," Dutch oost Old Saxon ost, Old High German ostan, German Ost, Old Norse austr "from the east"), from PIE *aus- "to shine," especially "dawn" (cf. Sanskrit ushas "dawn;" Greek aurion "morning;" Old Irish usah, Lithuanian auszra "dawn;" Latin aurora "dawn," auster "south"), literally "to shine." The east is the direction in which dawn breaks." (Online Etymological Dictionary)
There is nothing in "East" that suggests animal fertility. Hence the word has nothing to do with Astarte or Ishtar. Relating the Germanic word "Easter" to the Semitic word "Ishtar" is as fallacious as relating the English word "Baby" to the Semitic word "Babylon".

http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAAahUKEwjltNzJuKTHAhVITIgKHW_kAVg&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.kjvtoday.com%2Fhome%2Feaster-or-passover-in-acts-124&ei=YrTLVeX7KsiYoQTvyIfABQ&usg=AFQjCNFPuQl1Yujietv7nky1X44p3rs6Bg&bvm=bv.99804247,d.cGU