Quote:
Originally Posted by pentecostisalive
Jesus words are not of no effect, however many people misapply his words in ways that he never intended.
Jesus spoke these words, and the scripture says that he opened their understanding. He didn't want them to get it wrong. When the Apostles left his moment, and then entered into Acts 2, their understanding was clear with what Jesus required, and they applied what they had been taught by baptizing in the name of Jesus Christ.
If the Apostles applied Jesus words in this way, who are we to apply them any differently? The only reason to do so would be to connect yourself to trinitarian false doctrine, and try to mix false ideology with the true. This never works, and God clearly frowns upon such attempts through the Epistles and to the Seven Churches of Revelation. |
Quote:
Originally Posted by pentecostisalive
The discussion was not whether Jesus words are of non effect, but whether they are being misapplied and misinterpreted.
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I agree that people misunderstand what Jesus and writers of the Bible have said. But the true test is if a person sees that they should add F,S,HG to the verbage. There are people on this forum that have state that when they were in the UPC that they added the F,S,HG to it as well. You may not see that one should add it. Some people say that it is the most Biblical form of baptism cause you take Jesus' words for what is written. Whether Jesus intended for people to use F,S,HG or not He said it-at least we have to believe He did because it is there. You may see it as a compromise, but the people that change may not. I know people that are for both arguments, but it is only opinion because you do not know the heart of the matter.
Lets say for a moment that it was for compromise. Does it negate the baptism because you added F,S,HG in front of 'Jesus Name'? No!