Why did Jesus tell Mary "Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father:" and then, eight days later, asked Thomas to "Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side:"
11But Mary stood without at the sepulchre weeping: and as she wept, she stooped down, and looked into the sepulchre,
12And seeth two angels in white sitting, the one at the head, and the other at the feet, where the body of Jesus had lain.
13And they say unto her, Woman, why weepest thou? She saith unto them, Because they have taken away my LORD, and I know not where they have laid him.
14And when she had thus said, she turned herself back, and saw Jesus standing, and knew not that it was Jesus.
15Jesus saith unto her, Woman, why weepest thou? whom seekest thou? She, supposing him to be the gardener, saith unto him, Sir, if thou have borne him hence, tell me where thou hast laid him, and I will take him away.
16Jesus saith unto her, Mary. She turned herself, and saith unto him, Rabboni; which is to say, Master.
17Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.
26And after eight days again his disciples were within, and Thomas with them: then came Jesus, the doors being shut, and stood in the midst, and said, Peace be unto you.
27 Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.
__________________ The world has lost the power to blush over its vice; the Church has lost her power to weep over it.
Atonement had to be made. He had to present the blood, so to speak. After He resurrected, he was on his way THAT DAY. Lev 16:17 says that the high priest cannot have any man mar or taint him while performing atonement. The passage you cited with Mary was just the same picture.
Notice His change of terms after, which must be explained by an ascension.
John 20:22-23 KJV And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost: (23) Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.
He said nothing like that to Mary! Why not? He had not yet ascended.
But he begins to make astounding declarations! Why? He ascended immediately after speaking to Mary.
Sis Alvear is correct, I believe.
__________________ ...MY THOUGHTS, ANYWAY.
"Many Christians do not try to understand what was written in a verse in the Bible. Instead they approach the passage to prove what they already believe."
Atonement had to be made. He had to present the blood, so to speak. After He resurrected, he was on his way THAT DAY. Lev 16:17 says that the high priest cannot have any man mar or taint him while performing atonement. The passage you cited with Mary was just the same picture.
Notice His change of terms after, which must be explained by an ascension.
John 20:22-23 KJV And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost: (23) Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.
He said nothing like that to Mary! Why not? He had not yet ascended.
But he begins to make astounding declarations! Why? He ascended immediately after speaking to Mary.
Sis Alvear is correct, I believe.
I believe Elder Blume is correct as the High Priest he could not be touched while in HIs journey to the Holiest of All to place the blood on the Mercy Seat. Heb.9;12
I believe Elder Blume is correct as the High Priest he could not be touched while in HIs journey to the Holiest of All to place the blood on the Mercy Seat. Heb.9;12
That is my understanding also.
Somewhere between the "touch me not" of John 20:17 and His appearance the same day to some of the disciples in John 20:19-23, Jesus ascended and presented the blood to the Father.
One small point to be seen here as well. The fact that the word of God is, indeed, the word of God.
The apostles say that they had reached the world and had been made known to all nations and yet people will argue that it has not.
When the word of God says it is done. It is done.
Here Jesus says he cannot be touched because he hasn't yet ascended. Later on he allows himself to be touched.
If the word of God is the word of God then... clearly... between the 2 incidences... Jesus ascended.
Let the word be the word.
Yeah, except that Thomas didn't touch Jesus. Jesus would have know he wouldn't, so offered anyway, even though perhaps He still couldn't be touched. Note also, He appeared in the room when the doors were shut. Just sayin'.
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Hebrews 13:23 Know ye that our brother Timothy is set at liberty
But, John does not mention the ascension, at all, between these two occurances.
I do not think he had to. Since Jesus told Mary to not touch Him due to Him having not yet ascended, and He told Thomas to touch Him, he must have Ascended. The bible never told us here that He was ascending to make atonement, either, but He was.
Leviticus 16:17 KJV And there shall be no man in the tabernacle of the congregation when he goeth in to make an atonement in the holy place, until he come out, and have made an atonement for himself, and for his household, and for all the congregation of Israel.
It does not say that He was acting as High Priest at this point, either, but we know He was due to words said elsewhere.
My thoughts, anyway.
__________________ ...MY THOUGHTS, ANYWAY.
"Many Christians do not try to understand what was written in a verse in the Bible. Instead they approach the passage to prove what they already believe."
Hybrid Mode
