End Time Army of Women Preachers Psalms 68:11

[Roxanne Murphy]

Originally Posted by rdp

LOL - Though not technically a "prophet" - Ezra is often referred to as a "prophet" within academia. Here's an very in-depth thesis on Ezra - & he's listed as a "prophet": http://www.ibiblio.org/freebiblecomm...EN/VOL08OT.pdf & Here: http://www.amazon.com/Ezra-Prophet-P.../dp/B004HO5JLA



In fact, Ezra is often compared to the prophet Moses within Judaism: http://www.jewishhistory.org/ezra-and-nehemiah/



Still, the point remains fully in-tact that you will never produce a passage where a woman expounds from Scripture to a congregation of any sort !



Sorry, try again !

No, you are most definitely NOT excused from the nursery. You keep making stinky messes from your own copy and paste jobs and thn cl those stinky messes 'sound doctrine'.
And you continue to dodge my question, (the one asking where any prophet is found in scripture to have expounded from scripture) and I know you have to because if you answer honestly it leaves the door of truth wide open to the fact that women are NOT automatically excluded from the five fold ministry named in Ephesians 4. Prophets are listed second on that list, BEFORE evangelists, pastors and teachers. And, simple fact also remains: prophetess is simply the feminine version of prophet.

And I can write your response if you like: you will assert that you have already addressed (insert topic here) over and over, then you will copy and paste your list of multiple translations of one scripture, then you will make a snide comment that either questions my salvation and/or my knowledge of scripture and last but never least, you will lament the lack of spiritual ability by everybody else to see things your way (because only you have great revelation of truth regarding this subject: your narrow minded, 20th century American definition of preacher/minister)

[Sister Alvear]

The reason he does that he cannot prove that 1 Corinthians 14:34,35 or 1 Tim. 2 is telling a woman not to preach...HE KNOWS THAT.... Almost any person that studies the Bible in another language knows that the word silence in Tim. is one word and ! Cor. silence is another word...The 1 Cor. word means: Making no sound...So if we take it at face value like he said in one of his posts than a woman cannot pray outloud...sure cannot receieve the Holy Ghost, cannot sing and cannot even say Amen... SO HIS translation in HIS mind says well, that must mean preach... No where will he find a woman cannot preach...the first bearers of the goodnews were women...Everytime someone gets up to preach they repeat a story that was told to women first.. . Jesus did not first appear to the "vicar" of the church, Peter, or even to the beloved disciple. He appeared to Mary and the women who followed him and served him. Mary saw him first, and she received the central tenet of the Christian faith: "He is risen!”

Jesus then commissions Mary to proclaim his resurrection: "Go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God’" (v. 17). Mary obeyed. She returned to Jerusalem to proclaim, "‘I have seen the Lord’; and she told them that he had said these things to her" (v. 18). She was the first preacher of the good news of the resurrection to the same men who had just been at the tomb before Jesus appeared to Mary.

[Sister Alvear]

When people start fussing if a woman can be a part of the 5 fold ministry I always think of 35 And James and John, the sons of Zebedee, come unto him, saying, Master, we would that thou shouldest do for us whatsoever we shall desire. Mark 10:

36 And he said unto them, What would ye that I should do for you?

37 They said unto him, Grant unto us that we may sit, one on thy right hand, and the other on thy left hand, in thy glory.

38 But Jesus said unto them, Ye know not what ye ask: can ye drink of the cup that I drink of? and be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with?

What does it matter what title people think we have?
Don't worry about titles just do the work HE called you to do...

I have walked in churches and the pastor called me a true apostle...lol...other places I have been called a lady prophet...others have called me a great evangelist....others have called me a teacher...However I am none of the above....I am a missionary....a servant....a handmaiden of the Lord and a mother in Israel....

People that fuss and fight over who is who seem to have an inferior complex...Why knock the other person? If you do not believe in them or their calling...then fulfill YOUR calling...Remember it was Jesus that said, for whoever is not against us is for us.

So why try to destroy some lady preacher? Even if you do not believe in them they carry the same message of Christ and work for Him?

Maybe you cannot have lunch with them but you don't have to try to destoy one person that carries the gospel message....

[Sister Alvear]

Huldah participated in the biggest spiritual revival of her Nation. How did she do that? BY giving the word of the LORD to the king and to the priests....THUS SAITH THE LORD....It is interesting to note that the priests turned to a woman for God's Word when many men of God were also advisors to the King. The prophets Habakkuk, Jeremiah and Zephaniah were also active prophets of God during this time. We find no rebuke from these men to Huldah...and God sent a great revival to the priesthood....

[KeptByTheWord]

Originally Posted by Sister Alvear

The reason he does that he cannot prove that 1 Corinthians 14:34,35 or 1 Tim. 2 is telling a woman not to preach...HE KNOWS THAT.... Almost any person that studies the Bible in another language knows that the word silence in Tim. is one word and ! Cor. silence is another word...The 1 Cor. word means: Making no sound...So if we take it at face value like he said in one of his posts than a woman cannot pray outloud...sure cannot receieve the Holy Ghost, cannot sing and cannot even say Amen... SO HIS translation in HIS mind says well, that must mean preach... No where will he find a woman cannot preach...the first bearers of the goodnews were women...Everytime someone gets up to preach they repeat a story that was told to women first.. . Jesus did not first appear to the "vicar" of the church, Peter, or even to the beloved disciple. He appeared to Mary and the women who followed him and served him. Mary saw him first, and she received the central tenet of the Christian faith: "He is risen!”

Jesus then commissions Mary to proclaim his resurrection: "Go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God’" (v. 17). Mary obeyed. She returned to Jerusalem to proclaim, "‘I have seen the Lord’; and she told them that he had said these things to her" (v. 18). She was the first preacher of the good news of the resurrection to the same men who had just been at the tomb before Jesus appeared to Mary.

[KeptByTheWord]

Originally Posted by Roxanne Murphy

No, you are most definitely NOT excused from the nursery. You keep making stinky messes from your own copy and paste jobs and then call those stinky messes 'sound doctrine'.
And you continue to dodge my question, (the one asking where any prophet is found in scripture to have expounded from scripture) and I know you have to because if you answer honestly it leaves the door of truth wide open to the fact that women are NOT automatically excluded from the five fold ministry named in Ephesians 4. Prophets are listed second on that list, BEFORE evangelists, pastors and teachers. And, simple fact also remains: prophetess is simply the feminine version of prophet.

And I can write your response if you like: you will assert that you have already addressed (insert topic here) over and over, then you will copy and paste your list of multiple translations of one scripture, then you will make a snide comment that either questions my salvation and/or my knowledge of scripture and last but never least, you will lament the lack of spiritual ability by everybody else to see things your way (because only you have great revelation of truth regarding this subject: your narrow minded, 20th century American definition of preacher/minister)

The only qualifications listed in the NT by Paul are for: Bishop, deacon and elder. These are the only 3 listed church government positions, and certainly according to the headship set forth by God, would have to be a man.

However, in edifying the church, the 5-fold ministry most certainly would have to include women, as has been pointed out before many times. The calling of evangelist could also fall under the category of missionary... of which God has called many, many, many women to evangelize and preach the gospel.

[Dordrecht]

Can females participate in revivals?

[rdp]

Originally Posted by Roxanne Murphy

No, you are most definitely NOT excused from the nursery. You keep making stinky messes from your own copy and paste jobs and thn cl those stinky messes 'sound doctrine'.
And you continue to dodge my question, (the one asking where any prophet is found in scripture to have expounded from scripture) and I know you have to because if you answer honestly it leaves the door of truth wide open to the fact that women are NOT automatically excluded from the five fold ministry named in Ephesians 4. Prophets are listed second on that list, BEFORE evangelists, pastors and teachers. And, simple fact also remains: prophetess is simply the feminine version of prophet.

And I can write your response if you like: you will assert that you have already addressed (insert topic here) over and over, then you will copy and paste your list of multiple translations of one scripture, then you will make a snide comment that either questions my salvation and/or my knowledge of scripture and last but never least, you will lament the lack of spiritual ability by everybody else to see things your way (because only you have great revelation of truth regarding this subject: your narrow minded, 20th century American definition of preacher/minister)

LOL - I just showed you where many in academia refer to Ezra as a prophet - & what do you do? What y'all always do ! Ignore the point & keep plodding along in your willful ignorance & rebellion the Bible!


What you fail to see is that you're only making my point ! Prophecy is not - nor has never been - a sermon from the Scriptures! Ughhh, hellooooo? That's PRECISELY what I've been telling you over & over & over ! Thank you for the assistance !




Yes, the Bible clearly forbids women to "preach-teach" to men in the church - couldn't be plainer! And, you gals have been caught making more errors than most "nursery" kids - y'all simply don't know what you're talking about & are in direct defiance to God's Word (e.g., I Timothy 2.11-3.15; I Cor. 14.34). Numerous pastors have told me how down-right foolish & willfully igniting h'all look. True to form, y'all are not I search of truth in this area - only defending your anti-biblical position ! Absolutely no one has even touched the syntactical issues in I Tim. 2.11-14 that Dr. Wallace enunciated - why? Because you cannot - so you simply offer more mere denial & scorn !



Back in the corner for your "time-out" session !

[Pliny]

Originally Posted by Roxanne Murphy

But that is the argument that continues to be presented from the other side of the discussion, with the repeated asking for instances in scripture where women 'expounded from a text of scripture'. Make up your minds, gentlemen, stop trying to have it both ways.

Seriously??? You don't think the Elders of the church fed the church by preaching from the scriptures??? The Elders were men BTW. The reason the question is asked is because it is known that there are none. That is the point but I think you knew that already.

[Pliny]

Originally Posted by Sister Alvear

The reason he does that he cannot prove that 1 Corinthians 14:34,35 or 1 Tim. 2 is telling a woman not to preach...HE KNOWS THAT.... Almost any person that studies the Bible in another language knows that the word silence in Tim. is one word and ! Cor. silence is another word...The 1 Cor. word means: Making no sound...So if we take it at face value like he said in one of his posts than a woman cannot pray outloud...sure cannot receieve the Holy Ghost, cannot sing and cannot even say Amen... SO HIS translation in HIS mind says well, that must mean preach... No where will he find a woman cannot preach...the first bearers of the goodnews were women...Everytime someone gets up to preach they repeat a story that was told to women first.. . Jesus did not first appear to the "vicar" of the church, Peter, or even to the beloved disciple. He appeared to Mary and the women who followed him and served him. Mary saw him first, and she received the central tenet of the Christian faith: "He is risen!”

Jesus then commissions Mary to proclaim his resurrection: "Go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God’" (v. 17). Mary obeyed. She returned to Jerusalem to proclaim, "‘I have seen the Lord’; and she told them that he had said these things to her" (v. 18). She was the first preacher of the good news of the resurrection to the same men who had just been at the tomb before Jesus appeared to Mary.

Oh brother... What a waste of time! Apparently "preaching" is simply talking... A donkey preached apparently as well...