The reason he does that he cannot prove that
1 Corinthians 14:34,35 or 1 Tim. 2 is telling a woman not to preach...HE KNOWS THAT.... Almost any person that studies the Bible in another language knows that the word silence in Tim. is one word and ! Cor. silence is another word...
The 1 Cor. word means: Making no sound...So if we take it at face value like he said in one of his posts than a woman cannot pray outloud...sure cannot receieve the Holy Ghost, cannot sing and cannot even say Amen... SO HIS translation in HIS mind says well, that must mean preach... No where will he find a woman cannot preach...the first bearers of the goodnews were women...Everytime someone gets up to preach they repeat a story that was told to women first.. . Jesus did not first appear to the "vicar" of the church, Peter, or even to the beloved disciple. He appeared to Mary and the women who followed him and served him. Mary saw him first, and she received the central tenet of the Christian faith: "He is risen!”
Jesus then commissions Mary to proclaim his resurrection: "Go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God’" (v. 17). Mary obeyed. She returned to Jerusalem to proclaim, "‘I have seen the Lord’; and she told them that he had said these things to her" (v. 18). She was the first preacher of the good news of the resurrection to the same men who had just been at the tomb before Jesus appeared to Mary.
Threaded Mode
