Calling on the Name of Jesus (at baptism)

[Evang.Benincasa]

If someone is baptized in Jesus name using the Chinese for Jesus, is he or she saved???

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple

So the SACRED NAME OF GOD is dependent on Greek inflection and case!

Have you ever studied a foreign language, especially an inflected one?

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple

You ASSUME the Greek text was the first one written by any Apostle which can never be proven. If one were using the Peshitta text he would say "Yeshua" appears and "Iesous" never appears.

I assume the NT was written in Greek because:

1. All historical evidence points that way.
2. Internal evidence proves it.
3. No alternative evidence exists.

EVEN IF IT WAS ORIGINALLY WRITTEN IN ASHANTI, God PRESERVED it in GREEK.

Your path is leading you down a long road that will wind up rejecting the inspiration and preservation of the HOLY BIBLE.

[Michael The Disciple]

Originally Posted by Esaias

So, back on topic, where is the NT command to use Yeshua? If it does not exist, then how can it be said to be "better" to use Yeshua instead of Jesus? Seems it boils down to a mere personal preference, and nothing more.

Well obviously it is a matter of personal preference. If it were not we would be preaching it as a sin issue.

Is it sinful to you if I use Yeshua and Jesus?

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple

Well obviously it is a matter of personal preference. If it were not we would be preaching it as a sin issue.

Is it sinful to you if I use Yeshua and Jesus?

As I have said, do what you want. But if you try to argue one is BETTER than the other, then we Go to scripture, and lo and behold, we see IESOUS not Yeshua.

[FlamingZword]

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

If someone is baptized in Jesus name using the Chinese for Jesus, is he or she saved???

Yes he is, but he is because he is using a translation of the original name of Yeshua.

Up to 250 years ago, the name Jesus did not exist at all, so how it this English name more original than a Hebrew name?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple

You ASSUME the Greek text was the first one written by any Apostle which can never be proven.

If one were using the Peshitta text he would say "Yeshua" appears and "Iesous" never appears.

Thank you so much for finally telling us what I have been saying all along. This issue has little to do about a name, but everything about us not having the original words of Jesus, or His apostles.

Good Grief!!!!

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by FlamingZword

Yes he is, but he is because he is using a translation of the original name of Yeshua.

Up to 250 years ago, the name Jesus did not exist at all, so how it this English name more original than a Hebrew name?

The Chinese is from the Greek BAD transliteration.

Good Grief!!!

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

Thank you so much for finally telling us what I have been saying all along. This issue has little to do about a name, but everything about us not having the original words of Jesus, or His apostles.

Good Grief!!!!

I bet if we looked into the origin of this doctrine we would find an effort to overthrow the validity of the (Greek) NT...

[FlamingZword]

Originally Posted by Esaias

As I have said, do what you want. But if you try to argue one is BETTER than the other, then we Go to scripture, and lo and behold, we see IESOUS not Yeshua.

Only because you are reading from a Greek writing.

But the Bible tells us that IESOUS at the age of 12 was in the temple discussing theology with the learned men in there.

It is well known that they conducted their teaching sessions in Hebrew not Aramaic much less in Greek, so it is obvious that Jesus did know Hebrew.

Just because his life was recorded in Greek does not mean that he and his disciples spoke Greek.