Hello seekerman,
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Originally Posted by seekerman
I agree that we are under the Melchizedektic priesthood, but that priesthood exists today in the person of Jesus Christ. We, as followers of Christ, are also partakers of that priesthood and it isn't limited to those who call themselves preachers, pastors, bishops or priests.
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While it is true that, as believers, we are now part of a royal priesthood (
1Pet 2:5, 9;
Rev 1:6; 5:10), it appears we will not reign with Christ as kings and priests until his thousand year reign (
Rev. 20:6).
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There is no temple today in which to perform sacred services nor is there a literal altar on which to offer animal sacrifice unto God. A building isn't the 'house of God' nor is the clergy a continuation of the levitical priesthood with it's various rituals and ordinances.
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I want to first address your comment by saying I am not advocating that Christians today participate in the Levitical tithing system. Why? Because there is no longer a Levitical priesthood to receive a Levitical tithe. There is no temple; there are no Levitical cities. All of this has now been replaced by the Melchisedec priesthood (
Heb 7:12, 18). Again, I absolutely agree that the Levitical tithing system is no longer valid.
Having said that, I
do believe there is a NT tithing system, and this tithe is SEPARATE AND APART FROM the Law. And I believe this is what Paul was arguing for in
1Cor 9.
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Giving isn't the issue with me, it's the issue of WHERE to tithe. How does one give the tithe to the great Melchizedektic high priest? I'm His representative, you're His representative. How do we determine who receives the tithe as unto Jesus?
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I think Paul tells us very specifically who this goes to in
1Cor 9:14-
"So also the Lord directed those who proclaim the gospel to get their living from the gospel." (
1Cor 9:14 NASU)
houtoos kai (“even so”- KJV) is variously rendered “so also” (NASU, YLT) or “in the same way” (NLT, ESV, NIV, CJB, TLB, NCV, RSV). It means that the precepts or maxims which preceded this statement are to serve as the pattern, manner and example for that which follows:
ho Kurios dietaxen (“hath the Lord ordained”): dietaxen is third person singular aorist active indicative of diatasso. This verb appears sixteen times in the NT, and is variously rendered in the KJV as “command”, “appoint”, “ordain”, “set in order”, or “give order”. Other translations: “directed” (NASU, CJB, YLT), “ordered” (NLT), “commanded” (ESV, NIV, NCV, RSV), or “given orders” (TLB). It is used to convey a directive or commandment.
In this verse, the Apostle Paul is saying that the Lord has issued a commandment that they who preach the gospel should live (literally) “out of the gospel” (ek tou euangeliou zeen), and they should do so based directly upon the pattern, manner and example which precedes this verse, specifically, verse 13:
"Do ye not know that they which minister about holy things live of the things of the temple? and they which wait at the altar are partakers with the altar?" (
1 Cor 9:13 KJV).
Paul makes his appeal to the principle behind the Levitical tithing system to support his argument. Just as the Levitical priests lived of the offerings at the altar, "even so" should they who preach the gospel live by similar means.
The command for this to take place is issued to the church; the recipients are they who preach the gospel.
Your thoughts?
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