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Old 12-18-2012, 10:36 AM
deacon blues deacon blues is offline
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Re: Why Imply No Tongues = No Salvation?

Quote:
Originally Posted by navygoat1998 View Post
Deacon I have always wondered about John 20:22-23

22 And when He had said this, He breathed on them, and said to them, “Receive the Holy Spirit. 23 If you forgive the sins of any, they are forgiven them; if you retain the sins of any, they are retained.”

They had the Holy Spirit even before the upper-room.
Yes, and I was taught and always argued that John 7 says the "the Spirit was not yet given because Jesus was not yet glorified." So He was commanding them to receive it in John 20, not imparting it. That's the old argument.

The question is this, "when was Jesus glorified?" OPs say at His ascension in Acts 1. I say He ascended before Acts 1, after the resurrection. Earlier in John 20 He says to Mary Magdalene "Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

Then later in the chapter He appears and breathes on the them and says "Recieve ye the Holy Spirit". Then a little later in the chapter He tells Thomas to touch His wounds. If Mary couldn't touch Him because He had not yet ascended, yet He tells Thomas to touch Him before Acts 1, then it's safe to deduce that Jesus ascended to heaven first somewhere between the resurrection and appearing to Thomas. And since John 7 says the Spirit was not given because Jesus wasn't glorified, I believe when Jesus breathed on them, they were given the Spirit, because He had been glorified.

So I think the old argument is flawed. The argument that He breathed on them and commanded them to receive the Spirit that wasn't fulfilled until Acts 2.
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