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Originally Posted by KeptByTheWord
Yes, this is my question, and below is the typical answer I've gotten.
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Big Yawn & a hearty Ho-Hum . Hmmm, lemme' see, maybe if I write in another font she'll understand the plain English ? Here, let's try this (note the italicized font ):For almost 64 pp. now I've explained to you that both the passage allowing women to prophesy & the admonition to be silent appear in entirely distinct context (did you R-E-A-D that ?)
I Cor. 11 is NOT the same context as I Cor. 12-14 inasmuch as Paul begins chp. 12 by shifting topics from the hair issue-Lord's Supper to the gifts of the Spirit.
As it relates to I Cor. 14 women are commanded to be silent in the church in the context of either preaching (viz the verb "speak") or the evaluation of prophecy. In this context women are to be "silent," but in the context of I Cor. 11 women can "prophesy" - but biblical "prophecy" has never, nor will it ever, be a "sermon from the Scriptures."
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Ahh, RDP, so you are switching to the "prophesy" mode now. Putting these scriptures in light of women prophesying. BUT you've said a woman can prophesy. HOW in the world can you say this verse allows for her to prophesy, and yet keep silent. See.... dancing around the issue, never answering. Silence means "no language." If we interpret the passage to mean word for word what it says, silence in the churches must mean that a woman can't prophesy, sing, testify or preach at all in the church, and that she must remain SILENT. After all, that is exactly what Paul said. Why then, do you allow your women to sing, pray and prophesy, speaking out loud in your church?
See... not even you are following Paul's words. You are disobeying Paul's writings (per your interpretation) by allowing your women to speak, prophesying or not. Silence means SILENCE, QUIET, NO LANGUAGE. Per your context, and definition, it would mean that a woman could not speak at all in the church.
You are wiggling now... please explain how your women keep silent, and yet can sing, testify, and prophesy.
1 Cor. 14:27-35
26 How is it then, brethren? when ye come together, every one of you hath a psalm, hath a doctrine, hath a tongue, hath a revelation, hath an interpretation. Let all things be done unto edifying.
27 If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret.
28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
29 Let the prophets speak two or three, and let the other judge.
30 If any thing be revealed to another that sitteth by, let the first hold his peace.
31 For ye may all prophesy one by one, that all may learn, and all may be comforted.
32 And the spirits of the prophets are subject to the prophets.
33 For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.
34 Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law.
35 And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.
RDP... Your women who speak at all in the church, even when they prophesy, are out of order,
according to your context.
Paul says it is a shame for a woman to speak in the church, and you let your woman speak in the church because YOU interpret this verse to mean prophesy.
You see, you have taken these verses out of the context and place that Paul was trying to teach. Most likely, Paul was talking about woman being silent when others were speaking, and not to interrupt or try to usurp the authority of their husbands in the assembly, of that we cannot be sure, it is a guess. We don't know the circumstances under which Paul wrote this letter, the questions that were asked, or scenarios that were presented, but we do know that his letters were addressing issues, and questions in the church.
So... if we literally interpreted this verse,
a woman would not be able to utter a single peep in a church service, not so much to pray, sing, testify, or even prophesy.
Contrariwise, we know that Paul certainly allowed for all believers to take an active part in the assembly, so it stands to reason that Paul was addressing something that was happening in the church assembly and to keep things in order. Since there was perhaps a problem with women interrupting, he was telling them to be silent, in this scenario. The culture and context must be understood,
or else, all women should just come to church, and be quiet as church mice, and not say a word, if this scripture is interpreted literally.
What you've done, is placed your own interpretation on it, simply being that you think this means a woman can't preach... but the word "silence" destroys that interpretation. Silence means silence. It means no language, no prophesying, no language.
Keep wiggling. Maybe we'll get to the bottom of this.
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RDP wrote:
Now, let's have a lil' look-see at everything you've "ignored":
I've asked you over & over to explain how we "must bear our own burden" & yet "bear one anothers burden(s)" simultaneously? No answer !
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I bear my own burden, and bear another's burden too in prayer or in any way I can help, how is that so difficult to understand?
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RDP wrote: I've asked you to offer syntactical objections to Dr. Daniel Wallace's detailed exegesis of I Tim. 2? No answer ! I've shown you how I Tim. 2 CANNOT be discussing the supposed "home-order" scenario viz Paul's clear declaration that he was writing his letter to Timothy to instruct him in church-order - No answer !
And, the list goes on & on - but this should suffice for the time-being!
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I've said before, I'm not a Greek/Hebrew scholar. I can't argue with you on that level. However, if one has to learn Greek/Hebrew to understand the word of God, then 99.9% of the people who think they understand the word of God are in big trouble. Setting yourself up on a pretty high pedestal there, if that is what you are trying to do.
My perspective is this... these words were written in a different culture from ours, and we must keep that in mind when reading Paul's writings.
Let's look at some terminology today if someone 2000 years from now were to read, and wonder what we meant?
That person just burns me up .... (a scholar might grammatically break this down to read ... that person just on fire me up)
I'm texting (a scholar might interpret this to say I'm reading text)
And I know there are more examples of phrases that have a meaning beyond their literal interpretation... so in all cultures, we understand certain phrases, and terminologies together mean something totally different than if they were broken down according to what each word literally means.
So, a lot more goes into understanding a language than just grammar. You have to understand the culture and context of the writing in order for it to make sense.
I've said that to say this.... we don't know for sure what situations Paul was addressing with these remarks, but certainly they contradict the fact that in other places woman are allowed to prophesy as in 1.
Cor 11, which means that they are able to speak and break their silence... so.... obviously translating the
1 Cor. 14 passage word for word doesn't quite work here. The culture and context must be considered in understanding this passage, and correlating it with Paul's other writings.
Meanwhile.... I guess your women are busy disobeying the Apostle Paul by not being silent in your church, according to your definition....