Daniel's 70th week

[Michael The Disciple]

Originally Posted by Ehud

I understand they are similarly described, but why does using common language necessarily mean it is the same event being described?

Think of it like this. When we want to prove the deity of Christ we go to Exodus 3 where God tells Moses I AM. Then we go to John 8 and find the exact wording where Jesus says 1 AM.

Then we may go to Isaiah 44 and find where YAH says I AM the first and the last. Then we go to Rev. 1:17 where Jesus says I AM the first and the last.

In doing this we are sure because of the EXACT wording that we have proved the deity of Christ.

So why would it be any different with this?

Jesus says he will COME and GATHER TOGETHER his elect in Matt. 24. Paul says to the Thessalonians in 2 Thess 2 they will find rest at THE COMING OF CHRIST AND OUR GATHERING TOGETHER to him.

The wording is EXACT.

Not to mention the context is the same. Jesus is telling us about the abomination of desolation. Paul is telling of the man of sin.

Jesus says he will gather together his elect. Paul says Jesus will gather together the saints. No difference between the two.