Quote:
Originally Posted by Bowas
I hear that alot in my teachings. "The prophecies of Revelation could not have happened, because (fill in the blank) has not happened yet, therefore, shortly, at hand, time is at hand, time statements, are not really."
That is one flaw so many do, and that is judge a prophecy, by what they interpret it to mean. Many of those in Israel today, do not believe Jesus came as Messiah/Saviour 2000 years ago, merely because he didn't come the way they thought, but we all know he did. So who is right?
The position should not be, the time is not when it clearly declared it would, but how did it happen during the time it was declared it would.
I know, now comes the. "well, if it did happen in the first century, why, or how do (fill in the blank) occur?
First one has to accept the basic foundation...the time statements found throughout the book, and elsewhere in the New Testament, and they are there for a reason, not for private interpretations.
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But you did not address the 2 main points I brought up:
1. If the Final Judgment already happened, then upon what basis do you believe there is any future judgment for individuals?
And,
2. If the at hand time statements mean a prophecy is to be fulfilled within a very short time (40 years?) then what about
Deut 32?
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