Is divorce a sin if no one was unfaithful?

Originally Posted by TRFrance

No, single people cannot commit adultery. But that doesnt prove anything.
Married people dont commit "fornication" the way we use the word today. But my point (which I'm sure you must understand by now) is that the original use of the greek word referred to sexual immorality in general, not just by unmarried people. This is an irrefutable fact, but maybe since the facts interfere with your theology you're having trouble accepting it.

I will answer your question even more thoroughly here sir. I'll expand further here with a post I made on a previous thread dealing with this:

http://apostolicfriendsforum.com/sho...6&postcount=28

Jax, I think the definition of fornication such as you've displayed above is a root cause of a lot of erroneous teaching on the topic.

The Greek word for "fornication" is porneia, which refers to a broad range of sexual immoral behavior in general. In fact, many modern Bible versions, such as the NIV and others, translate the word porneia as "sexual immorality" today. In its original use in the New Testament, the word porneia does not have the limited meaning of "sex before marriage (or outside of marriage)" that we commonly ascribe to it today in our contemporary/Western setting. (Porneia could refer to homosexual or heterosexual sexual immorality... and to both marital and non-marital sexual immorality.)

Thus, although there is a distinct Greek word for adultery (moicheia), adultery would still fall under the meaning of porneia. In short, all adultery (moicheia) is porneia, even though not all porneia (i.e sexual immorality) is necessarily adultery.

Regarding an earlier point you raised, there is no indication at all in scripture or in original Greek usage of these words, that the word porneia only applies to single people. To assert such would be to force a meaning into the text that's not naturally there. Some have used that logic/interpretation to say that when Jesus said a person may divorce for the cause of fornication , he was only refer to premarital sex that was discovered after the marriage, and wasnt referring to adultery committed after the marriage took place, since he didn't use the specific word for adultery in that text (Matt 5:32, and 19:9). But I believe the a fair minded reading of scripture shows this to be not the case. If the word porneiacovers sexual immorality as a whole, then it seems obvious to me that it must, and does, naturally include adultery as well.

TFRACC,, I have no problem with the truth... and I will be the first to acknowledge to original meaning of the Word Pornea...... but I will also prove by scriptures as I have already done... in the scriptures there was a distintinction in understanding between the two....... Fornication was referred to as before marriage and Adultery after marriage

Paul tells us that the single man commites fornication.... and to avoid doing so let him marry.. FLEE FORNICATION.. yet after marriage Paul always refers to infidelity as ADULTERY