Is divorce a sin if no one was unfaithful?

TRFRANC,, the question nobody will touch in this argument because to do so proves the point.....

Can Single people commit Adultery?

The categorization has always been clear in scripture.

[Michael Phelps]

Originally Posted by Dr. Vaughn

TRFRANC,, the question nobody will touch in this argument because to do so proves the point.....

Can Single people commit Adultery?

Since I haven't read this entire thread, maybe I'll just take a stab at what you believe here, DV, and you can correct me if I'm wrong, ok?

You believe that if a man marries a woman (or vice versa) and discovers into the marriage that she/he had relations BEFORE the vows were sealed, they are free to divorce?

If so, what if it was before that person was saved? And, even if not, what if they have repented for that sin, and it's under the blood? Still license for the other person to leave them?

Ok, second part of the question - if a man comes home and discovers that his wife is engaged in illicit relations with another man, and is unrepentant, but instead informs her husband that she has no intentions of ending the affair, is that man free to divorce her?

Here is one for you gentlemen.... since you so desperatly want to teach the church that they can divorce for Adultery... since Adultery is FORNICATIOn... then you gotta let them divorce for IDOLATRY..... thats all part of Fornication....

and since Adultery is the same as fornication....

Your marriage Covenant is until death do us part..... how long does that covenant stand before God? How long does it remain in effect?

Who has the power to divide asunder one person? When you marry you are no longer twain but both have become ONE PERSON.. what man can divide that asunder again?

Originally Posted by Michael Phelps

Since I haven't read this entire thread, maybe I'll just take a stab at what you believe here, DV, and you can correct me if I'm wrong, ok?

You believe that if a man marries a woman (or vice versa) and discovers into the marriage that she/he had relations BEFORE the vows were sealed, they are free to divorce?

If so, what if it was before that person was saved? And, even if not, what if they have repented for that sin, and it's under the blood? Still license for the other person to leave them?

Ok, second part of the question - if a man comes home and discovers that his wife is engaged in illicit relations with another man, and is unrepentant, but instead informs her husband that she has no intentions of ending the affair, is that man free to divorce her?

He is free to put away..... but as long as he liveth she will be his wife....

Just look at the story of Gomer.. was she ever not Hoseas wife?

I Cor 7:2 To avoid fornication let every man have his own wife. Is this to avoid him becoming a harlot? No, to avoid himself burning in lust.

WAIT A MINUTE ----- having a wife means you cannot now commit fornication? Do you really mean after you take the wife.. it would then become Adultery? Surely this is not what the Apostle was sayin

[Michael Phelps]

Originally Posted by Dr. Vaughn

He is free to put away..... but as long as he liveth she will be his wife....

Just look at the story of Gomer.. was she ever not Hoseas wife?

Thanks for the clarification.

Not that I necessarily agree with you, but I appreciate your explanations.

[Rhoni]

Don't you just hate legalism?

[TRFrance]

Originally Posted by Dr. Vaughn

TRFRANC,, the question nobody will touch in this argument because to do so proves the point.....

Can Single people commit Adultery?

The categorization has always been clear in scripture.

No, single people cannot commit adultery. But that doesnt prove anything.
Married people dont commit "fornication" the way we use the word today. But my point (which I'm sure you must understand by now) is that the original use of the greek word referred to sexual immorality in general, not just by unmarried people. This is an irrefutable fact, but maybe since the facts interfere with your theology you're having trouble accepting it.

I will answer your question even more thoroughly here sir. I'll expand further here with a post I made on a previous thread dealing with this:

http://apostolicfriendsforum.com/sho...6&postcount=28

Jax, I think the definition of fornication such as you've displayed above is a root cause of a lot of erroneous teaching on the topic.

The Greek word for "fornication" is porneia, which refers to a broad range of sexual immoral behavior in general. In fact, many modern Bible versions, such as the NIV and others, translate the word porneia as "sexual immorality" today. In its original use in the New Testament, the word porneia does not have the limited meaning of "sex before marriage (or outside of marriage)" that we commonly ascribe to it today in our contemporary/Western setting. (Porneia could refer to homosexual or heterosexual sexual immorality... and to both marital and non-marital sexual immorality.)

Thus, although there is a distinct Greek word for adultery (moicheia), adultery would still fall under the meaning of porneia. In short, all adultery (moicheia) is porneia, even though not all porneia (i.e sexual immorality) is necessarily adultery.

Regarding an earlier point you raised, there is no indication at all in scripture or in original Greek usage of these words, that the word porneia only applies to single people. To assert such would be to force a meaning into the text that's not naturally there. Some have used that logic/interpretation to say that when Jesus said a person may divorce for the cause of fornication , he was only refer to premarital sex that was discovered after the marriage, and wasnt referring to adultery committed after the marriage took place, since he didn't use the specific word for adultery in that text (Matt 5:32, and 19:9). But I believe the a fair minded reading of scripture shows this to be not the case. If the word porneiacovers sexual immorality as a whole, then it seems obvious to me that it must, and does, naturally include adultery as well.

The Oxford dictionary defines Fornication as 'voluntary sexual intercourse between an unmarried couple.' Notice the difference between fornication and adultery. Adultery is 'the act of being unfaithful to one's wife or husband by voluntarily having sexual intercourse with someone else,' whereas Fornication is 'sexual intercourse between an unmarried couple.'

All those poor Oxford Scholars need some of the knowledge of this board to get these word meanings right!