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Originally Posted by PaPaDon
 Bro. Blume, I agree with the words of your post, however, when I think of the term or phrase, Son of man, I am reminded of the writings found in Hebrews chapter 2, versus 14 through 18. |
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I agree that your reference is the primary reason for the manifestation in flesh. And all of that answers to Christ being the Last Adam as well.
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It is my belief, however, that when we become absorbed into discussions of this issue we often times lose sight of the greater question, which is to say, what was that aspect of the judgment of death which was so eternally devastating and utterly insurmountable, that it required God's manifestation in human flesh in order to cause his plan of redemption for mankind to become effective. In other words, why was it necessary for God to inhabit a human body, and undergo the experience of its death, for his plan of reconciliation to be effectuated?
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I think it was because death came by man and resurrection from the dead must come by man, along with the thought that His death was vicarious. Since we are humans, a death to save us from sin, and yet allow us to live afterwards, free from that sin, would have to be a human death.
Nothing but a human being could die as us. A
kinsman had to redeem us. That is also the reason, I think, why God barred Adam from the tree of life after he sinned, so he COULD die, that through vicarious death in the then-future man might be saved.
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