Which bible/bibles gets 1 Timothy 3:16 correct?

[jfrog]

Originally Posted by jfrog

Jesus is mentioned in verse 13. 1 Tim 4 is about those who depart from the faith. The faith it refers to is the same faith made mention of in 1 Timothy 3:13... the faith which is in Christ Jesus.. Therefore we have the faith which is in Christ Jesus being talked about both before and after 1 Timothy 3:16. This doesn't mean verse 16 refers to Jesus but surely you'll agree with me that contextually it does leave us with that possibility.

Couple this with the fact that we don't have any evidence of the church Fathers quoting this verse to establish the deity of Christ and the evidence begins to have some weight on the side that the verse is about Jesus and not God.

I'm not interested in nailing down that the reading I proposed is the correct reading. I'm only interested in having yall agree that either reading is possible. Why do I want that? Because it's the truth and because it shows that some bibles contain an error: either those bibles with he are in error or those bibles with God are in error. This shows that its possible for the scriptures to contain errors. Since it is possible for them to contain errors then we cannot claim that any bible we have is without error. That means we cannot claim any bible we have is infallible. Sure we can claim the originals were infallible but what good does an infallible book that we don't possess do us?

[FlamingZword]

Originally Posted by jfrog

I'm not interested in nailing down that the reading I proposed is the correct reading. I'm only interested in having yall agree that either reading is possible. Why do I want that? Because it's the truth and because it shows that some bibles contain an error: either those bibles with he are in error or those bibles with God are in error. This shows that its possible for the scriptures to contain errors. Since it is possible for them to contain errors then we cannot claim that any bible we have is without error. That means we cannot claim any bible we have is infallible. Sure we can claim the originals were infallible but what good does an infallible book that we don't possess do us?

Come on I say "he", "Jehova", "Dios", "El", when referring to God often. there is no error it is just a different word for referring to God.

The Bible does plenty of Good, so the question is really moot.