Which bible/bibles gets 1 Timothy 3:16 correct?

[UnTraditional]

God is Jesus and Jesus is God. I like how most of the versions make the point of saying this. Those who deny the deity of Christ are lost and going to Hell for their denial of Jesus being the I AM. I am so sick and tired of these false Christians denying the deity of Jesus, saying He was just a man. Those who do so spit on Christ and the sacrifice He made on the Cross.

[SRM]

Originally Posted by UnTraditional

God is Jesus and Jesus is God. I like how most of the versions make the point of saying this. Those who deny the deity of Christ are lost and going to Hell for their denial of Jesus being the I AM. I am so sick and tired of these false Christians denying the deity of Jesus, saying He was just a man. Those who do so spit on Christ and the sacrifice He made on the Cross.

Actually those who say He was a "god man" is not truly honoring the Son,Oneness treat the Son of God as a piece of flesh for God to wear and in the end He will be disposed of because He will no longer be needed.

So Jesus was sent to die for all so that those in him could live forever except him?

[jfrog]

Originally Posted by Thinker

.

Disagree:

Christ is not the subject matter nor is He mentioned; God is.

1Tim 4 contunues the thought. Its about God, and His ways..

1 Timothy 3:16 reveals God as Jesus Christ...



.

Jesus is mentioned in verse 13. 1 Tim 4 is about those who depart from the faith. The faith it refers to is the same faith made mention of in 1 Timothy 3:13... the faith which is in Christ Jesus.. Therefore we have the faith which is in Christ Jesus being talked about both before and after 1 Timothy 3:16. This doesn't mean verse 16 refers to Jesus but surely you'll agree with me that contextually it does leave us with that possibility.

Couple this with the fact that we don't have any evidence of the church Fathers quoting this verse to establish the deity of Christ and the evidence begins to have some weight on the side that the verse is about Jesus and not God.

[jfrog]

Originally Posted by jfrog

Jesus is mentioned in verse 13. 1 Tim 4 is about those who depart from the faith. The faith it refers to is the same faith made mention of in 1 Timothy 3:13... the faith which is in Christ Jesus.. Therefore we have the faith which is in Christ Jesus being talked about both before and after 1 Timothy 3:16. This doesn't mean verse 16 refers to Jesus but surely you'll agree with me that contextually it does leave us with that possibility.

Couple this with the fact that we don't have any evidence of the church Fathers quoting this verse to establish the deity of Christ and the evidence begins to have some weight on the side that the verse is about Jesus and not God.

I'm not interested in nailing down that the reading I proposed is the correct reading. I'm only interested in having yall agree that either reading is possible. Why do I want that? Because it's the truth and because it shows that some bibles contain an error: either those bibles with he are in error or those bibles with God are in error. This shows that its possible for the scriptures to contain errors. Since it is possible for them to contain errors then we cannot claim that any bible we have is without error. That means we cannot claim any bible we have is infallible. Sure we can claim the originals were infallible but what good does an infallible book that we don't possess do us?

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple

It is the battle between the Majority text and the Alexandrian text. Unfortunately the religous world has embraced the Alexandrian. The only current Bibles Im aware of based on the Majority (Byzantine) text are the King James, New King James, and the World English Bible. The King James itself is actually from a certain strand of the Majority text.

A few weeks ago I attempted a discussion on the Godhead with Matt Slick the owner of CARM. We could not get past the first round. He spent much time trying to discredit the Majority text and insisting it is false.

Amen and amen.

[Steve Epley]

I'll check when Gabriel delivers my Dead Scroll this morning.

[FlamingZword]

Originally Posted by jfrog

I'm not interested in nailing down that the reading I proposed is the correct reading. I'm only interested in having yall agree that either reading is possible. Why do I want that? Because it's the truth and because it shows that some bibles contain an error: either those bibles with he are in error or those bibles with God are in error. This shows that its possible for the scriptures to contain errors. Since it is possible for them to contain errors then we cannot claim that any bible we have is without error. That means we cannot claim any bible we have is infallible. Sure we can claim the originals were infallible but what good does an infallible book that we don't possess do us?

Come on I say "he", "Jehova", "Dios", "El", when referring to God often. there is no error it is just a different word for referring to God.

The Bible does plenty of Good, so the question is really moot.

[Jay]

Yes, there are versions that are blatantly false, NIV/TNIV are two of these. That is because they did wanted the original documents to say something that they did not say, and they changed it. Outside of around 100-200 places where there are disagreements, all of the old documents are in agreement. Further, more than 90% of those situations are no longer than one word. In addition, there are only three places that are adversly affected by this, Mat 6:13, John 5:4, and 1 John 5:7. No Biblical doctrine is undone by this.

[peter83]

Originally Posted by jfrog

So which of these bibles get it right? The ones that say he or God?

Hi !The two "oldest" texts says :
1)WHO (not he!) was manifested in flesh.
2)WHICH WAS MANIFESTED IN FLESH
this originaly word by word translated (i am greek)
and the Majority Text says:
3)GOD MANIFESTED IN FLESH
in greek text many times writes shrter words for example jesus is writen originali :ΙΗΣΟΥΣ but in the text it is writen :ΙΣ
this means for the word :
HE=ΑΥΤΟΣ and we must then have ΑΣ but we dont have text like this
WHO=ΟΥΤΟΣ and we correct have ΟΣ ,but this is gramatical wrong .
WICH=ΟΥΤΟ and is grammaticaly correct ..if he is speaking anout the mistery wich manifested.
GOD=ΘΕΟΣ and we have ΘΣ thats why some texts has ΟΣ without the - int middle of O.
also there are references from 1-2-3 century apostolic fathers.
*sorry for my english!

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by peter83

Hi !The two "oldest" texts says :

This implies use of a logical fallacy. The promotion of the "two oldest" implies they're the most accurate, since they're closer to the date the texts were first written. Just because something is older does not mean it's more accurate. Consider denominations and ask yourself if Catholicism is most accurate because its oldest.

These two oldest are the Codex Vaticanus and the Codex Sinaiticus. The Vaticanus was found on a shelf in the Vatican after Catholics plundered the world, and it's not known where the codex was even found. The Sinaiticus was found in a monastery on Mt Sinai used for starting fires!