Why Imply No Tongues = No Salvation?

[rdp]

Originally Posted by Jermyn Davidson

The Bible does not record the Phillipian jailer nor anyone there at his conversion to speak in tongues.

Faith without works is dead, which is why the Bible records the jailer's baptism, upon the confession of his faith.

Where does the Bible specifically record that the Phillipian Jailer repented (methuo) of his sins?

Using your same criteria above....one no longer has to repent to be saved???

Oh, I won't go into how the Bible specifically designates repentance as "works"...But never calls tongue-talking a "work!"

Ac. 26.20: "......that they should repent, turn to God, and do works befitting repentance."

Apparently Paul never received the memo on "Finished Work" Doctrine