Why Imply No Tongues = No Salvation?

[rdp]

Originally Posted by Jermyn Davidson

The Bible states that the jailer had the Word of the Lord spoken to him and he and his household were baptized... and rejoiced because he and his household believed in God.

It's a stretch to believe that the jailer and his household spoke in tongues at this encounter.

It's also a stretch to teach that the Baptism of the Holy Spirit is a separate experience from being born again.

Faith is a stretch.

But where does the text specifically state the jailer "repented" (methuo):______________?

There was a perfectly serviceable verb available, which NT writers readily employed elsewhere, had this taken place.

Point is, arguing from silence cuts both ways.

And, you are exactly right, there is no "separate experience(s)" of Spirit baptism and salvation.

If we don't have the one....we don't have the other according to God's Word.

Blessings anyway!