Do you celebrate The Lord's Supper?

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by KeptByTheWord

This is something that I have been wondering about recently. I know that many churches on New Year's Eve celebrate the Lord's Supper with communion, and some even with foot washing.

How many have done this, or did it this past New Year's Eve?

My question is this... where did the current tradition of doing it on New Year's Eve come from? Is it biblical to do it only on New Year's Eve or Easter.... or more often?

...


Based on the scripture references above, do you think the Lord's Supper is something that should be done once a year on New Year's Eve, or Easter, or should it be something that we do each time we come together to fellowship and break bread?

We eat the Lord's Supper often. I have come to the conclusion based on my studies that the Lord's Supper is (supposed to be) whenever Christians come together and have a meal together. Bread and wine are used (usually) but are not 100 percent necessary, in my opinion. (Although bread and wine are necessary to share the bread and the cup, of course...)

The 'communion' that passes for the Lord's Supper among most Protestant (including Pentecostal) churches is anything but.

The bread and cup are shared, expressing our 'communion' ie sharing with one another in the merits of Christ. One loaf, one body, one cup, one covenant, one faith, one Lord, etc etc.

The Supper ought to be a SUPPER, an actual meal (commonly called the 'agape' by theologians).

Too much superstition left over from the catholic MASS surrounds the common 'communion' service among Pentecostals. Such as - the need for DEEP INTROSPECTION to somehow get yourself worthy to 'partake'. Face it, you ain't worthy and never will be. Paul warned against partaking in an unworthy manner, and it had nothing to do with mere bread and wine, but with 'not discerning the Lord's Body' - ie THE CHURCH, one's FELLOW BELIEVERS, as members of the SAME BODY. Paul warned about turning the Lord's Supper into one's own supper and despising one's brethren. This would put you in the same position as JUDAS, not a good thing.

I believe the evidence indicates they ate 'the Lord's Supper' just about whenever they gathered together.

We eat it every sabbath, and sometime more often.

We use leavened bread except during Passover, or if we just want to use unleavened bread. There is no scripture which demands it be either one (except during Passover, which of course requires unleavened bread anyway). And there are good scriptural arguments for both positions, therefore I conclude it is not really relevant.

We use one loaf, which is shared, and one cup, which is shared. The squeamish who are afraid to drink after their brethren might use one cup to pour a drink into each person's cup, if that makes people feel better.

The way we do it is basically like this:

1. We say a blessing and give thanks for whatever drink we have (everyone drinks their own cup).
2. We give thanks for bread and break a piece off and pass the bread, everyone breaks off a pice and eats it.
3. We eat the meal.
4. At the end of the meal we say a blessing and give thanks for the wine in the cup of blessing, and pass it around.

This follows the pattern indicated in Luke, which is identical with the other gospel accounts EXCEPT there is a mention of a cup BEFORE the meal.

All the accounts seem to indicate the bread came with or at the beginning of the meal, and the cup of blessing (the shared cup) came at the END of the meal. Although, I wouldn't say this is dogmatically how it MUST be done.

Remember, the Lord's Supper is just that - a group of disciples eating dinner with Jesus. Keep it simple and avoid superstition and everything is well.

[KeptByTheWord]

Originally Posted by Esaias

We eat the Lord's Supper often. I have come to the conclusion based on my studies that the Lord's Supper is (supposed to be) whenever Christians come together and have a meal together. Bread and wine are used (usually) but are not 100 percent necessary, in my opinion. (Although bread and wine are necessary to share the bread and the cup, of course...)

The 'communion' that passes for the Lord's Supper among most Protestant (including Pentecostal) churches is anything but.

I have long felt that the Lord's Supper as celebrated in most Protestant churches is far from how the NT church celebrated it. I was hoping for your input, because I remember there was a similar discussion sometime back.

Originally Posted by Esaias

The bread and cup are shared, expressing our 'communion' ie sharing with one another in the merits of Christ. One loaf, one body, one cup, one covenant, one faith, one Lord, etc etc.

The Supper ought to be a SUPPER, an actual meal (commonly called the 'agape' by theologians).

Excellent. I think so too. And... further... even if you have a large church group, this would lend itself to being held in a more intimate home/fellowship setting.

Originally Posted by Esaias

Too much superstition left over from the catholic MASS surrounds the common 'communion' service among Pentecostals. Such as - the need for DEEP INTROSPECTION to somehow get yourself worthy to 'partake'. Face it, you ain't worthy and never will be. Paul warned against partaking in an unworthy manner, and it had nothing to do with mere bread and wine, but with 'not discerning the Lord's Body' - ie THE CHURCH, one's FELLOW BELIEVERS, as members of the SAME BODY. Paul warned about turning the Lord's Supper into one's own supper and despising one's brethren. This would put you in the same position as JUDAS, not a good thing.

THANK YOU FOR THIS INSIGHT! This makes so much sense. I truly think this is the main reason many don't celebrate the Lord's Supper because they feel unworthy. Thank you for this simple explanation.

Originally Posted by Esaias

I believe the evidence indicates they ate 'the Lord's Supper' just about whenever they gathered together.

We eat it every sabbath, and sometime more often.

We use leavened bread except during Passover, or if we just want to use unleavened bread. There is no scripture which demands it be either one (except during Passover, which of course requires unleavened bread anyway). And there are good scriptural arguments for both positions, therefore I conclude it is not really relevant.

We use one loaf, which is shared, and one cup, which is shared. The squeamish who are afraid to drink after their brethren might use one cup to pour a drink into each person's cup, if that makes people feel better.

The way we do it is basically like this:

1. We say a blessing and give thanks for whatever drink we have (everyone drinks their own cup).
2. We give thanks for bread and break a piece off and pass the bread, everyone breaks off a pice and eats it.
3. We eat the meal.
4. At the end of the meal we say a blessing and give thanks for the wine in the cup of blessing, and pass it around.

This follows the pattern indicated in Luke, which is identical with the other gospel accounts EXCEPT there is a mention of a cup BEFORE the meal.

All the accounts seem to indicate the bread came with or at the beginning of the meal, and the cup of blessing (the shared cup) came at the END of the meal. Although, I wouldn't say this is dogmatically how it MUST be done.

Remember, the Lord's Supper is just that - a group of disciples eating dinner with Jesus. Keep it simple and avoid superstition and everything is well.

Thank you for sharing how you choose to celebrate the Lord's Supper in your home. It sounds like a very special and sweet time of fellowship and love as your fellow brethren gather together to worship the Lord. I would think this would be very meaningful each time a fellowship/gathering took place, how ever often that may be.

It is my hope that this discussion will open up the hearts and minds of all those involved in ministry/cell groups/home fellowships or even a large church ... to reconsider how often they partake of the Lord's Supper, and to realize that it DOES NOT have to take place in a church building, but that it may be the most appropriate in a home or small group setting, wherever that may be.