Quote:
Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa
Because the Greek word κομᾷ means to wear the hair as tresses long flowing ornamentation. When we read how other Greek writers before, during, and after the New Testament use κομᾷ in their writings. We see it used as having the hair as long flowing tresses. Length being secondary I would have to ask Mr Thayer. Because when you look up the Greek word and how it was used in Antiquity it always denotes growing, and flowing down. The Translators of the KJV never even dreamed that we would be hitting a stump over the word long used in the chapter. Due to their understanding of their own culture where, one women always covered their heads in some fashion, and never cut their hair. Men wore their hair either bald, or shoulder length. Mostly their cultural understanding was handed down from the Vulgate of Rome, which explains the verse as a woman have nutriat in the verse meaning to allow to grow, to nurture it as one does a child, not hindering the growth. Hence the Italian crescere, and the Spanish "crecer el cabello."
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Thank you for your response. What I have on my mind is Peter in
Acts 10, praying at noon and the vision he had. It was confusion to him. But, God spoke to him and His words could be confirmed by the written Word that the Apostles and Bereans used to verify any teaching.
My question is, would Peter need to look at Antiquity for proof or to get his answer? I would think it might not be as reliable. And I don't believe you can call the hair a "covenant" unless the Word speaks that it is.
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