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  #21  
Old 12-12-2007, 10:37 PM
mizpeh mizpeh is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by TRFrance View Post
[/INDENT][/INDENT]Where did the believers ever accept that someone received the Holy Ghost simply because they "accepted Jesus" or "believed" ?
And why did Paul have to have Ananias pray for him to receive his sight and be filled with the Holy Ghost if Paul believed in Jesus on the road to Damascus when he saw Him?
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  #22  
Old 12-12-2007, 11:32 PM
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Michael The Disciple Michael The Disciple is offline
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The so called PCI position is pretty weak in light of all scripture on the topic of salvation. TRFrance's post about the Samaritan disciples will not let their position be right.

Having said that I will now say that tongues as the ONLY initial evidence is the real issue here.

True the Holy Spirit is personal and God. But the baptism of the Spirit the Bible speaks of is the Spirit of God being poured out on the Believer. Another way of saying they are anointed by the Spirit. In that sense it is accurate to speak of having it.
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  #23  
Old 12-13-2007, 07:05 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by TRFrance View Post
What scriptures do you used to teach that there's distinction between receiving the Holy Ghost, and being baptized in the Holy Ghost?



My previous post to free at last deals with that very issue.
We see a clear example of a whole bunch of new believers who had repented and got baptized, but still didn't have the Holy Ghost.
I guess it would be nice to think that anyone who repents, receives the Holy Ghost just by their repentance and/or being baptized.... but there's no scriptural basis for us to believe or teach that .
.

The Holy Ghost is a He, baptism of the Holy Ghost is an experience a gift promised by God.

If you believe God is the Father, Son and Holy Ghost, you can't separate them when if comes to receiving the gift. How can you be repented and baptized and still not have God in you? (Father, Son and Holy Ghost).

Acts 2:38
Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
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  #24  
Old 12-13-2007, 08:25 AM
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Holy Ghost only equals tongues in some minds.

No tongues=no holy ghost. That is your problem when you veiw scripture with your glasses tined with this theolgy.
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  #25  
Old 12-13-2007, 08:53 AM
DividedThigh DividedThigh is offline
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i believe the greatest evidence of the holy ghost indwelling is the fruit of the spirit, dt,
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  #26  
Old 12-13-2007, 09:53 AM
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I endorse this thread.
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  #27  
Old 12-13-2007, 10:24 AM
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TRFrance TRFrance is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Darcie View Post
The Holy Ghost is a He, baptism of the Holy Ghost is an experience a gift promised by God.

If you believe God is the Father, Son and Holy Ghost, you can't separate them when if comes to receiving the gift. How can you be repented and baptized and still not have God in you? (Father, Son and Holy Ghost).

Acts 2:38
Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
Darcie , youre totally missing the point here, and I see you're not even bothering to respond to the scriptural references I mentioned.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Darcie View Post
The Holy Ghost is a He, baptism of the Holy Ghost is an experience a gift promised by God.
Yes the Holy Ghost is a he.. nobody is arguing with that. How is that relevant to this issue?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Darcie View Post
The Holy Ghost is a He, baptism of the Holy Ghost is an experience a gift promised by God.
The Holy Ghost is promised by God. Again, nobody is disputing that. That is not the issue here.
We know the HG is promised by God. The question is, is someone saved before receiving of the Holy Ghost. ? If so, at what point, does the Holy Ghost come into the person?

Obviously you think the baptism of the Holy Ghost is different from the gift of the Holy Ghost. That is so not scriptural , I’m just shaking my head to see that people actually believe that.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Darcie View Post
If you think think baptism of the Holy Ghost and receiving the Holy Ghost is the same you make the Holy Ghost an object.
I think Sam did a good job of showing that the following descriptions, used interchangeably in the NT, are different ways of describing the same experience.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sam View Post
… the experience that is called by various terms such as
receiving the Spirit,
being filled with the Spirit,
the Spirit falling upon them,
the Spirit coming upon them,
being endued with power,
being baptized in the Spirit,
receiving the promise of the Father,
being filled with the Spirit
These are all the same thing. Otherwise show me, Darcy, from scripture, how the baptism of the Holy Ghost is a separate experience from receiving the Holy Ghost.

And explain to me how believing the 2 are the same "makes the Holy Ghost an object". I don't even see the rationale there in that, or how that even matters one way or another in this discussion.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Darcie View Post
If you believe God is the Father, Son and Holy Ghost, you can't separate them when if comes to receiving the gift. How can you be repented and baptized and still not have God in you? (Father, Son and Holy Ghost).
Again, more of the same. Nobody here is "separating them" here. I STILL fail to see how any of this is relevant to the point of Scott's question.
[quote=Darcie;325924]
Quote:
Originally Posted by Darcie View Post
Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
Ok, its a gift. We know that, Darcie.
Let me ask it this way... at what point does the gift come... when you believe? , when you decide to accept Jesus? When they get baptized? or when exactly? When do you know the person has received the gift?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Darcie View Post
How can you be repented and baptized and still not have God in you? (Father, Son and Holy Ghost).
Fine - let's deal with that question, which really deals with the issue at hand . I see what your train of thought is on this, but what scriptures are you using to support this thought?
Lets go with what the scriptures say, not just the concepts you and I might have in our mind.

So you think if someone repents and is baptized, then they must have God in them? . Ok, fine... scriptures please. I am more than willing to hear them. And don't just say acts 2:38, because that doesn't prove anything as far as the point being discussed in this thread.
----

Now speaking of scriptures, I'll go back to my earlier reference, which you didn't bother to respond to... I'll be brief, since I've already referred to it...

1) In Acts 8, the Samaritans repented and were baptized , but had not received the Holy Ghost... until till afterward, when Peter and John came to and prayed for them to receive it. So tell me, doesn't that blatantly undermine your theory on this??

2) Lets throw in another one. Piggybacking on Mizpah’s question above….
Quote:
Originally Posted by mizpeh View Post
why did Paul have to have Ananias pray for him to receive his sight and be filled with the Holy Ghost if Paul believed in Jesus on the road to Damascus when he saw Him?
If you receive the Holy Ghost by repenting and believing, as some say, why was Ananias sent to pray for Paul to receive the Holy Ghost. Paul saw Jesus, and believed, & had evidently repented, and was even fasting, right?

So 1 point and 1 question for you then…

A--If Paul had received the Holy Ghost just by repenting, he wouldn't have needed Ananias to pray for him to receive the gift...

B---Or do you believe the the Holy Ghost "just comes" at baptism ? In that case, tell us why that didn’t happen with the Samaritans in Acts 8.
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  #28  
Old 12-13-2007, 10:38 AM
TRFrance's Avatar
TRFrance TRFrance is offline
Matthew 7:6


 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Sam View Post
I would not say the Samaritans were not saved and did not have the Holy Spirit dwelling within until the Apostles came down from the Jerusalem Church. I would say that they were saved when they believed (verse 12). It is recorded in verse 14 that they had received the Word (Jesus). Because they believed and received the Word/Jesus, Philip baptized them (verse 12). We see in a later account that Philip required a profession/confession of faith before he would baptize someone (verses 36 and 37) because he wanted to ascertain that they had been saved or converted first (just as John the Baptist insisted on repentance before he would baptize in water Matthew 3:7-8). In my opinion these folks were saved because they believed and received Jesus (the Word). Then as a result of their faith they were baptized in water. Even though they were saved and had Jesus living within, and were water baptized they had not received the experience that is called by various terms such as:

receiving the Spirit,
being filled with the Spirit,
the Spirit falling upon them,
the Spirit coming upon them,
being endued with power,
being baptized in the Spirit,
receiving the promise of the Father,
being filled with the Spirit
OK Sam, this is a bit long but bear with me on this

I'm seeing a lot of opinion and conjecture in your post, Sam. But let's try to stick to what the book says.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sam View Post
I would not say the Samaritans were not saved and did not have the Holy Spirit dwelling within until the Apostles came down from the Jerusalem Church. I would say that they were saved when they believed (verse 12).
You "would say" they were saved? OK. But does the scripture say that?

Answer is "no" .

What it does say is that they received the word and were baptized. (Acts 8, v. 6, and 12) . "Receiving" the word, (i.e. accepting/believing the word) does not constitute salvation in and of itself.

It says plainly that the Holy Ghost had not yet come upon them. (v. 15-16)

The Word tells us that he who does not have the Spirit "is none of His" (Rom 8:9) or as the NIV renders it :
"if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Christ"
And if it is by one Spirit that we are baptized into the body (1 Cor 12:13), then a person is not even in the body of Christ (i.e. "not saved") if they haven't yet received the the Spirit. There's no way to get around that. It might not be popular to teach that, but it's scriptural!

So in light of Rom 8:9 & 1 Cor 12:13 on what basis then (apart from just your feelings), do you assert that the Samaritans in Acts 8 were saved (at verse 12) when the bible tells us they had not received the Holy Spirit?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sam View Post
We see in a later account that Philip required a profession/confession of faith before he would baptize someone (verses 36 and 37) because he wanted to ascertain that they had been saved or converted first
Did the eunuch say that? Or are you forcing that meaning into the text?
What did the eunuch say?

Lets look at that...verse 36-38:
36...the eunuch said, See, here is water; what doth hinder me to be baptized? 37 And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.
38 And he commanded the chariot to stand still: and they went down both into the water, both Philip and the eunuch; and he baptized him.
You are totally reading into that verse things that are not stated.
The only thing Philip asked was if the man believed. He wanted a profession of faith.

(The 2 things the scripture has ever shown to be required before baptism were 1/ believing/...or a "confession of faith" showing belief, as we see here in 8:36-38, and of course 2/ repentance [see acts 2:38] )

Did it say Philip required the man to be "saved, or converted" before baptism? No. You're saying that. (And you're probably reading that meaning into the scripture because you feel that believing is synonymous with salvation). All Philip was requiring was the confession of faith. Thats all that passage says.

On that note, we see that Jesus said
"he that believes and is baptized shall be saved. (Mark 16:16).
This indicates to us that baptism is part of the salvation process, not something that comes after salvation. So Philip wouldn't be trying..
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sam View Post
to ascertain that they had been saved or converted first
before baptizing the man, since baptism isn't something that comes after salvation. NOTICE that Jesus didn't say "he that believes and is saved shall be baptized ...(which one might expect, if baptism truly came after salvation, as some claim).

See the distinction there?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sam View Post
In my opinion these folks were saved because they believed and received Jesus (the Word). Then as a result of their faith they were baptized in water. Even though they were saved and had Jesus living within, and were water baptized they had not received the experience..
There you go again.
In your opinion they were saved. You seem to rely on your opinion a lot with this. How about if we just stick to the Word?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sam View Post
In my opinion these folks were saved because they believed and received Jesus (the Word). Then as a result of their faith they were baptized in water. Even though they were saved and had Jesus living within, and were water baptized they had not received the experience..
So again you state that "they were saved", but you just stated you relied on your opinion in reaching the conclusion that they were saved! So now you basically continue to go further on developing your thought, based on something that you yourself stated is just your opinion! Sorry brother, that does not qualify as "rightly dividing the word". Not.Even.Close.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sam View Post
... were saved and had Jesus living within, and were water baptized they had not received the experience..
(See previous response). They "had Jesus living within" based on what scripture? I know its your opinion they were saved and had Jesus living within. You've already let us know that. But again, you continue to build your case on a foundation that is based on opinion, not solid scripture.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sam View Post
Even though they were saved and had Jesus living within, and were water baptized they had not received the experience that is called by various terms such as:

receiving the Spirit,
being filled with the Spirit,
the Spirit falling upon them,
the Spirit coming upon them,
being endued with power,
being baptized in the Spirit,
receiving the promise of the Father,
being filled with the Spirit
Okay!! Thank you, Sam.
You're actually helping me make my point here.

Clearly, (A )these terms you just listed all refer to the same single experience. Lets start with that...

And... (B) we know from scripture that receiving "the Holy Spirit", is the same as receiving the "Spirit of Christ", otherwise referred to as "the Spirit of your Father", or simply, "the Spirit". OK, basic stuff -- (there's one Spirit).
So...

That being said...

(1)... If... "he that has not the Spirit of Christ is none of his" (Rom 8:9) , then ...

a...the Samaritans in Acts 8 were "none of His" before they received the Holy Ghost, which didn't take place until verse 17

b... they were not in the body of Christ , since believers are baptized into the body by that one Spirit.

c... to put it simply, they were NOT saved [before verse 17] because there is no salvation without having the Spirit of God (see Rom 8:9 again), which we can all see they had not yet received up to this point.

and (2)... If (as Acts 8:15-16 says) they had not received the Holy Spirit, (aka the Spirit of Christ) , one cannot rightfully say "they had Jesus living within them" , since Jesus comes to live in us by way of His Spirit. The bible makes it abundantly clear that the Holy Ghost and the Spirit of Jesus Christ are that one Spirit.

Therefore, no Holy Spirit=No Spirit of Jesus Christ= No "Jesus living in their hearts"!! Its that simple.

Thus, it is a gross error to teach that a person who repents and believes in Jesus is saved before they "receive", /or "are baptized in"the Holy Spirit. There is nothing scriptural to support the idea/teaching that "Jesus comes and is living in " somebody before they receive the Spirit of Christ).

Essentially such a teaching would presuppose that the believer who comes to God receives a "first blessing" (initial coming of Jesus into their heart).. and then later a "second blessing" (i.e. the outpouring, infilling, baptism of the Spirit). There are many who teach this, and it serves as a nice convenient doctrine that makes a lot of people feel good, but its not supported by scripture, and it's SIMPLY. NOT. TRUE..
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  #29  
Old 12-13-2007, 10:39 AM
mizpeh mizpeh is offline
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One last question, in Acts 19 why did Paul ask the disciples he found at Ephesus this question:

Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? KJV

Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?" NASV

If Paul believed the Holy Ghost is received at faith why did he ask this question?
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  #30  
Old 12-13-2007, 11:56 AM
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TRFrance TRFrance is offline
Matthew 7:6


 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mizpeh View Post
One last question, in Acts 19 why did Paul ask the disciples he found at Ephesus this question:

Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? KJV

Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?" NASV

If Paul believed the Holy Ghost is received at faith why did he ask this question?
Good point. To take that a step further, Mizpheh,
Note that the same passage says:
5When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. 6And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.

After they got baptized, Paul subsequently laid hands for them to receive the holy Ghost. But if the Holy Ghost is automatically received by faith, why didn't they receive the HG upon believing Paul's gospel... or after that, simply upon being baptized?


The PCI version of salvation just doesn't stand up to scrutiny, when measured against scripture. It's simply a "Lite Version" of salvation.

.
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