Paganism in Christianity

[TK Burk]

Originally Posted by TCSQ

Found this sub topic kind of interesting as since coming into the Apostolic Faith have from the beginning heard that term "The Shekinah Glory" NEVER thought to question its origin. But now that you bring it up, found this link that shows the etymology of the word IN scripture. I will post the link and check it out .

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shekinah

Originally Posted by TCSQ

Yeah, just as I thought. The hebrew word Shakan ***IS*** in the text of the Old Testament. It is the basis for the word we translate Tabernacle, and means to abide, dwell, etc.

SOooooooooo We couldn't say that Shekinah was ever a name or title of God, such as El Olam or Jehovah Tsidkenu, BUT we certainly can use it in its BIBLICAL meaning which reflects the abiding dwelling presence OF Jehovah among his people.

You know what now causes me a little question? How did THIS term find its way into 20th century pentecostal terminology?

I mean, surely the preachers out in podunk california in 1948 were NOT Kabbalists! (Were they???) just kidding.

Originally Posted by TCSQ

Shakan

The base of the word under discussion "Shekinah" I would say that since the word in Kabbalist and Talmudic usage has taken on almost personhood (Kabbalism could outdo trinitarianism ANYDAY) I would say that on the one hand it is CORRECT to say it is NOT in the text of the Old (ShekinAH) but rather is an EXTRA Biblical word. However its ROOT "Shakan" IS repeatedly.

If Shekinah is a form of the word, rather than a mutation of the word (For example changing the word Present into PresenCE to grammatically use it in speech) then I would see no problem with even saying it is BIBLICAL although you may indeed say that that specific FORM of the word is NOT in the text.

Nice try, but you're swinging way too far out there to be making a viable point.

The word "Shekinah" is the "BASIS" for "Tabernacle"? How about the word "Tabernacle" is the basis for "Shekinah"?

If you want to start talking about root words, we could say most any word is in the Bible. But that is not the issue here, is it? What is being discussed is whether the actual word "Shekinah" is ever found in the Bible. THAT IS THE ISSUE. And you admitted that it is not. Consequently we could NOT say that “Shekinah was ever a name or title of God,” because it NEVER WAS. Also, did you read what I said about some churchs using the name “Sophia” for God’s name? That name, they claim, is in the Bible also. It is from the root meaning “wisdom.” So, how about it? Are you willing to make the same claim for their name as you do for this one? Same argument, same results?? I certainly hope not.

Where—again—do we find Shekinah readily used? In Jewish mysticism...think about it..."JEWISH" mysticism.... So why do you find Hebrew influence in that word? Because it derives from JEWISH mystics.

Why make this any harder than it needs to be? The word is not in your Bible, plain and simple. Why is this important? Well, because God says it’s important. When the Children of Israel made their golden calf, they did so to represent the “gods” that brought them out of Egypt, and to use during a feast to the LORD (Ex 32:4-5). You know the opinion God had about that. He is a jealous God. No other is to be worshipped before Him. The Bible is laden with examples of God’s feelings about this. Surely from these you can see why God takes issue with men calling Him names that originate from mystics and feminist-influenced church members?

New Age is really open to saying God has many names and many beliefs, but they are all the same. It is Christianity—true Christianity—that stands opposed to such nonsense. We are the ones who stand and shout that “the Bible says” there is no other God than One, and that His name is “Jesus”!