The "Abomination that Maketh Desolate"

[Lafon]

Originally Posted by mfblume

Let me put it this way: From 1948 onward, by what year must the end have come?

Anyone, anyone?

I would be hesitant to say that May 14, 1948 (the day in which the nation of Israel again declared themselves a member nation among the nations of the world), is the same day in which God has decreed that the final generation of man inhabiting the earth began, nor do I discount this entirely. After all, we are not to know the moment in which God has determined that final day of that last generation would be, only that we are made aware of the signs which are indicative of the nearness of the end.

Will May 14, 2018 (that is to say, 70 years from 1948) be day in which the Lord returns (in bodily form) to the land of Israel? Certainly no one can say that this is true, at least with any certainty, but on the other hand, it surely must be somewhere near that time period.

We find it stated in the closing portion of Hosea chapter 5, and continuing into the opening passages of chapter 6, that God said He would return to His place for two days (that is to say, 2,000 years), and in the third day He would return. And while we are not told when during the 3rd day His coming would take place, should we not conclude from such statements that His coming is near?

Just some thoughts about the matter of the time period during which I believe the Lord will return to the earth as He promised.

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Lafon

I would be hesitant to say that May 14, 1948 (the day in which the nation of Israel again declared themselves a member nation among the nations of the world), is the same day in which God has decreed that the final generation of man inhabiting the earth began, nor do I discount this entirely. After all, we are not to know the moment in which God has determined that final day of that last generation would be, only that we are made aware of the signs which are indicative of the nearness of the end.

Will May 14, 2018 (that is to say, 70 years from 1948) be day in which the Lord returns (in bodily form) to the land of Israel? Certainly no one can say that this is true, at least with any certainty, but on the other hand, it surely must be somewhere near that time period.

So, for instance, if time goes past 2028, then one must agree 1948 was completely out of the ballpark when it comes to prophecy? That is what I am trying to ascertain.

We find it stated in the closing portion of Hosea chapter 5, and continuing into the opening passages of chapter 6, that God said He would return to His place for two days (that is to say, 2,000 years), and in the third day He would return. And while we are not told when during the 3rd day His coming would take place, should we not conclude from such statements that His coming is near?

No. I say that honestly. Saying one day = one thousand years in Hosea's prophecy is foundationless. I can take that scripture and teach Christ's resurrection that occurred on a literal third day and more correctly apply Hosea to our victory through the cross, I honestly think.

Just some thoughts about the matter of the time period during which I believe the Lord will return to the earth as He promised.

The Lord will return, but we have to rightly divide the Word and use passages that are meant to be understood as speaking of His future return and not "returns" that already occurred in the lifetimes of listeners present, as in Matt 16:28, or other passages that have nothing to do with His coming in any form.

Of course you may be right and I wrong.

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by mfblume

So, for instance, if time goes past 2028, then one must agree 1948 was completely out of the ballpark when it comes to prophecy? That is what I am trying to ascertain.

Bump

[ronharvey]

Originally Posted by mfblume

Bump

Bump - Bump!

Ron

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by ronharvey

Bump - Bump!

Ron

Yogi bear again, huh? lol