Can You Explain This Puzzling Paradox?

[Steve Epley]

Originally Posted by mfblume

I believe He did ascend.

Atonement had to be made. He had to present the blood, so to speak. After He resurrected, he was on his way THAT DAY. Lev 16:17 says that the high priest cannot have any man mar or taint him while performing atonement. The passage you cited with Mary was just the same picture.

Notice His change of terms after, which must be explained by an ascension.

John 20:22-23 KJV And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost: (23) Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.

He said nothing like that to Mary! Why not? He had not yet ascended.

But he begins to make astounding declarations! Why? He ascended immediately after speaking to Mary.

Sis Alvear is correct, I believe.

I believe Elder Blume is correct as the High Priest he could not be touched while in HIs journey to the Holiest of All to place the blood on the Mercy Seat. Heb.9;12

[Sam]

Originally Posted by Steve Epley

I believe Elder Blume is correct as the High Priest he could not be touched while in HIs journey to the Holiest of All to place the blood on the Mercy Seat. Heb.9;12

That is my understanding also.
Somewhere between the "touch me not" of John 20:17 and His appearance the same day to some of the disciples in John 20:19-23, Jesus ascended and presented the blood to the Father.

[Digging4Truth]

Well explained brethren.

One small point to be seen here as well. The fact that the word of God is, indeed, the word of God.

The apostles say that they had reached the world and had been made known to all nations and yet people will argue that it has not.

When the word of God says it is done. It is done.

Here Jesus says he cannot be touched because he hasn't yet ascended. Later on he allows himself to be touched.

If the word of God is the word of God then... clearly... between the 2 incidences... Jesus ascended.

Let the word be the word.

[Timmy]

Originally Posted by Digging4Truth

Well explained brethren.

One small point to be seen here as well. The fact that the word of God is, indeed, the word of God.

The apostles say that they had reached the world and had been made known to all nations and yet people will argue that it has not.

When the word of God says it is done. It is done.

Here Jesus says he cannot be touched because he hasn't yet ascended. Later on he allows himself to be touched.

If the word of God is the word of God then... clearly... between the 2 incidences... Jesus ascended.

Let the word be the word.

Yeah, except that Thomas didn't touch Jesus. Jesus would have know he wouldn't, so offered anyway, even though perhaps He still couldn't be touched. Note also, He appeared in the room when the doors were shut. Just sayin'.