Has evolutionism become a leading religion?

[pelathais]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Oh, another question: If creation was done in 6 literal days, when was the earth created?

Gen 1:2 And the earth was without form and empty. And darkness was on the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved on the face of the waters.
Gen 1:3 And God said, Let there be light. And there was light.
Gen 1:4 And God saw the light that it was good. And God divided between the light and the darkness.
Gen 1:5 And God called the light, Day. And He called the darkness, Night. And the evening and the morning were the first day.

According to a literalist reading one has to conclude the earth was already created before the first day

It does appear that there was some period of time involved that the writer was intending us to see between "... God created the heavens and the earth..." and "... God said, Let there be light..."

I'm not talking about "gap theory" (though others may) and I don't see a one-to-one correlation between "days" and "ages" (of the earth) to give us a "Day/Age Theory" either.

It was poetic metaphor. The words are aligned in "mathematical couplets" whereby the sum of the number of word equates to a "divine" principle that the writer was trying to (and did) convey.

[Jason B]

Originally Posted by pelathais

It does appear that there was some period of time involved that the writer was intending us to see between "... God created the heavens and the earth..." and "... God said, Let there be light..."

I've heard this argument before, my problem with it, is that several times in Genesis and in the books Moses wrote, when He wanted the reader to know that a significant amount of time passed he wrote "and in the process of time, it came to pass".

Yet there is no indication whatsoever of time passing between verse 1,2 or 3.

[pelathais]

Originally Posted by Jason Badejo

I've heard this argument before, my problem with it, is that several times in Genesis and in the books Moses wrote, when He wanted the reader to know that a significant amount of time passed he wrote "and in the process of time, it came to pass".

Yet there is no indication whatsoever of time passing between verse 1,2 or 3.

"Books Moses wrote?" What Bible are you reading? Moses gave us the Law, not the Pentateuch.

Whenever the writer wanted us to understand who had written these works, they would say something like... "even as it is unto this day." What day was that?

Genesis 19:37; Genesis 26:33; Genesis 32:32; Genesis 35:20 ... and dozens of more.

It couldn't be Moses because when he died we read:

"And he (God) buried him (Moses) in a valley in the land of Moab, over against Bethpeor: but no man knoweth of his sepulchre unto this day." - Deuteronomy 34:6

That's kind of a funny thing for Moses to write about himself. Also consider Genesis 14:14. How could Abram have LITERALLY pursued Lot's captors all the way to a city that was named after Abram's great-grandson when Abram had yet to even have a son in the first place?

Also, how could Moses have "simply inserted 'Dan' for our understanding" when that particular city wasn't called "Dan" until about 120 years after Moses had died? See Judges 18:29. Moses died even before "Dan" was some place down around Gaza let alone way up past the Golan Heights where they later migrated.

There's a whole history that the writers of Genesis knew about concerning the migrations of the Tribe of Dan that all happened long after Moses himself had died.

The writers never stop saying "unto this day" until they get to the book of Nehemiah. Why is that?

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by pelathais

"Books Moses wrote?" What Bible are you reading? Moses gave us the Law, not the Pentateuch.

Whenever the writer wanted us to understand who had written these works, they would say something like... "even as it is unto this day." What day was that?

Genesis 19:37; Genesis 26:33; Genesis 32:32; Genesis 35:20 ... and dozens of more.

It couldn't be Moses because when he died we read:

"And he buried him in a valley in the land of Moab, over against Bethpeor: but no man knoweth of his sepulchre unto this day. - Deuteronomy 34:6

That's kind of a funny thing for Moses to write about himself. Also consider Genesis 14:14. How could Abram have LITERALLY pursued Lot's captors all the way to a city that was named after Abram's great-grandson when Abram had yet to even have a son in the first place.

Also, how could Moses have "simply inserted 'Dan' for our understanding" when that particular city wasn't called "Dan" until about 120 years after Moses had died? See Judges 18:29. Moses before "Dan" was even some place down around Gaza and NOT way up past the Golan Heights where they later migrated.

There's a whole history that the writers of Genesis knew about concerning the migrations of the Tribe of Dan that all happened long after Moses himself had died.

The writers never stop saying "unto this day" until they get to the book of Nehemiah. Why is that?

Oh yes, little sticker in that whole literalist argument...a HUGE HUGE assumption that God gave Moses the book of Genesis

[coadie]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Oh yes, little sticker in that whole literalist argument...a HUGE HUGE assumption that God gave Moses the book of Genesis

Where do you originate the claim?

Is this claim used to say the books aren't correct or true?