The Holy Ghost Speaking Thru Us? Tongues

[BeenThinkin]

Originally Posted by pelathais

Finding a good answer is a bit difficult but not entirely out of our reach. Being satisfied with pat answers that don't really address the question at hand is much easier. But that is the way it is with most things.

One problem is that the Bible doesn't make any difference between what we have come to call "xenolalia" and "glossolalia." Both phenomena are simply called "other tongues" (ἕτερος γλῶσσα). The concept of "xeno" (foreign) is considered to always be implied here.

The first step in considering this is probably asking, "Does the Holy Ghost speak through us in tongues?" Some will ask for proof that the contemporary phenomenon seen in Pentecostal churches is the same thing as Acts 2:4. This is something that I have never been able to prove.

The solace I find in the Bible however, is that Paul's discussion of tongues in 1 Corinthians appears to accept this phenomena on terms that are consistent with our contemporary experience. And, given the fact that the author of Acts, Luke, was a close associate of Paul's, I think that there is just something that we're missing here.

Thanks for your learned response, as always! And I'm not just looking for something to argue about, especially with you. Just couldn't reason in my mind, if the tongues were from God, and God knows all things, why He would give tongues, (for interpretation) if there was no interpreter present? Is there scripture to back up this reasoning?

Been Thinkin (And sometimes it hurts!)