Is Yeshua Your Father?

[RandyWayne]

Originally Posted by Sam

Your Dad's name is yada yada?

He probably thinks he is more like Yoda, but whatever.....

[Michael The Disciple]

Originally Posted by seekerman

Jesus' Father is my Father.

Can you explain what John meant when he said we are BORN OF HIM? Or did you actually read what I wrote?

[seekerman]

Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple

Can you explain what John meant when he said we are BORN OF HIM? Or did you actually read what I wrote?

I simply take the word of Jesus Himself who specifically identified His Father and God as the same as Mary's Father and God.

So, my Father is the same as Jesus' and Mary's Father. Not complicated really.

[Michael The Disciple]

Originally Posted by seekerman

I simply take the word of Jesus Himself who specifically identified His Father and God as the same as Mary's Father and God.

So, my Father is the same as Jesus' and Mary's Father. Not complicated really.

Ok lets look at what the Apostle says:

2:28 And now, little children, abide in him; that, when he shall appear, we may have confidence, and not be ashamed before him at his coming. 1 John 2:28

Can you identify WHO John is referring to in this verse?

On to the next verse.

2:29 If ye know that he is righteous, ye know that every one that doeth righteousness is born of him. 1 John 2:29

Do you believe verse 29 is talking about the same him or he as verse 28? If not why?

Isnt Jesus the one we are to abide in? Isnt Jesus the one coming? Does not THE NEXT VERSE say everyone that does righteousness is BORN OF HIM?

Does not all the language indicate the subject in the two verses are the same?

Does not this prove that JESUS is our Father? Or at least the Father of those who "do righteousness"?

[Michael The Disciple]

YESHUA

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KOiGBpjnyyw

[seekerman]

Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple

Ok lets look at what the Apostle says:

2:28 And now, little children, abide in him; that, when he shall appear, we may have confidence, and not be ashamed before him at his coming. 1 John 2:28

Can you identify WHO John is referring to in this verse?

On to the next verse.

2:29 If ye know that he is righteous, ye know that every one that doeth righteousness is born of him. 1 John 2:29

Do you believe verse 29 is talking about the same him or he as verse 28? If not why?

Isnt Jesus the one we are to abide in? Isnt Jesus the one coming? Does not THE NEXT VERSE say everyone that does righteousness is BORN OF HIM?

Does not all the language indicate the subject in the two verses are the same?

Does not this prove that JESUS is our Father? Or at least the Father of those who "do righteousness"?

Not at all. Jesus is never called "Father Jesus" or any such thing by anyone in the bible. As I indicated earlier, Jesus specifically identified His Father and God as being the same as Mary's Father and God. Jesus had a Father, He wasn't His own Father.

Consider this scripture......

1Co 4:15 For though ye have ten thousand instructors in Christ, yet have ye not many fathers: for in Christ Jesus I have begotten you through the gospel.

Paul said we are begotten of him (1 Cor 4:15) but that doesn't mean Paul is our Father, but simply means that Paul was the instrument by which the gospel was preached.

[Michael The Disciple]

Originally Posted by seekerman

Not at all. Jesus is never called "Father Jesus" or any such thing by anyone in the bible. As I indicated earlier, Jesus specifically identified His Father and God as being the same as Mary's Father and God. Jesus had a Father, He wasn't His own Father.

Consider this scripture......

1Co 4:15 For though ye have ten thousand instructors in Christ, yet have ye not many fathers: for in Christ Jesus I have begotten you through the gospel.

Paul said we are begotten of him (1 Cor 4:15) but that doesn't mean Paul is our Father, but simply means that Paul was the instrument by which the gospel was preached.

And yet right after John says we are BORN OF JESUS identifying who our Father IS he follows with THIS.

3:1 Behold, what manner of love the Father (as identified in the previous verse) hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not.

John explains we are born of Jesus making him our Father. He says the world knew him (the Father) not.

When did the world know him not?

1:10 He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. John 1:10

I think we could agree this means Jesus. The world knows us not because it knew him not.

So he is not merely AS a Father to the Christian altho he is that. He is also the Creator/Father of the world he came to.

[LUKE2447]

Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple

And yet right after John says we are BORN OF JESUS identifying who our Father IS he follows with THIS.

3:1 Behold, what manner of love the Father (as identified in the previous verse) hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not.

John explains we are born of Jesus making him our Father. He says the world knew him (the Father) not.

When did the world know him not?

1:10 He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. John 1:10

I think we could agree this means Jesus. The world knows us not because it knew him not.

So he is not merely AS a Father to the Christian altho he is that. He is also the Creator/Father of the world he came to.

If the Father was "IN" the world you limit the solutions. If the Father is external to creation as many would say. The Word is another person than the Father.(trinity) The Word was made flesh yet John also says "He was "in" the World." I think John 1:1 gives more understanding to Oneness Theology in that the Word was with God/dimensional relationship and the Word WAS God. Which the Father is the only true God. In any form Jesus is both God/Father expressed INTO the World and man.

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple

Well Mike its nice to know that you know me better than I know me. And that you know the thoughts and counsels of my heart. You say I am sending a message that it is incorrect to use the name of Jesus.

Thats kind of odd because here on this Forum I have myself used the name of Jesus thousands of times. Two days ago I baptized my daughter into the name of Jesus Christ. It would also be odd that if I were trying to say its wrong to use the name "Jesus" there is not a single post on the Forum where I can be found doing so.

So when you say I am doing that DESPITE WHAT I CLAIM this seems to indicate you think I am a deceiver.

Well if I am coming here with a hidden agenda to teach that its incorrect to use the name Jesus then I would no doubt be teaching such on my own web site where I could do so freely.

Why dont you go there and examine it.

http://www.freeforum101.com/inthelig...rum=inthelight

There you can find the true agenda of Michael The Disciple. You can see what I teach in the privacy of my own site.

And dont worry its not crowded there so one can spend time there and not feel rushed.

If you had more carefully read my post the all-important term APPEAR is there which is what makes all the difference. I did not accuse you of anything, but only said what you APPEAR to others to be saying. I believe your claim, personally. But since you insist on putting forth the effort to type YEHSHUA, then you make people suspicious, is all I am saying. Just telling you why you get the flack is all.

[Apprehended]

Why not just stop all the phony PRETENSE and just speak ENGLISH? We know who and what Jesus is...both Lord and Christ, God Almighty. No one has any doubt as to the English definition of Yeshua but suddenly start injecting the Greek word into our culture smacks of arrogance. The English name JESUS, our Lord and Christ, is quite sufficient. Why turn people off with phony PRETENSE? There is no need.