CONTINUED...
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Even back in chapter 4, he said Jews were in BONDAGE under the tutors and governors of Law.
Galatians 4:2-3 KJV But is under tutors and governors until the time appointed of the father. (3) Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage under the elements of the world:
The ELEMENTS of the world are referring to the LAW commandments in the sense of ELEMENTARY SCHOOL.
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Again, Law of Moses. Not the Law of God.
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And the Gentiles were in a different form of bondage before Christ came when they served Idols.
Galatians 4:8 KJV Howbeit then, when ye knew not God, did service unto them which by nature are no gods.
And for Gentiles to keep Law's holy sabbath day was for them to go from one form of bondage under idols to another form of bondage under law when the Jews are not even supposed to be in bondage under law any more!
Galatians 4:9 KJV But now, after that ye have known God, or rather are known of God, how turn ye again to the weak and beggarly elements, whereunto ye desire again to be in bondage?
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Again, as with circumcision, for a Gentile to turn to the Law of Moses would be moving from one bondage to another. Not so with the Law of God (the Ten Commandments).
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We know God only intended Israel to keep the sabbath day because it is from seventh sundown to first sundown of the next week, and the Inuit people in the Northern arctic regions see the sun stay above the horizon for months before it finally goes down.
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What’s a Jew to do in the northern arctic regions?! LOL
I have a few questions for you….
Rev. Blume,
John wrote:
1 John 3:4
Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
Sin is defined as being “transgression of the law”. Can you tell me what “law” John is writing about? The Law of Moses or the Law of God?
Is the “Law” carnal, or spiritual???
HEB. 7:16 Who is made, not after the law of a carnal commandment, but after the power of an endless life.
Spiritual
ROM. 7:14 For we know that the law is spiritual: but I am carnal, sold under sin.
Does the “Law” judge no man, or does the “Law” judge all men?
COL. 2:14-16 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross; And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it. Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:
JAM. 2:10-12 For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of the law. So speak ye, and so do, as they that shall be judged by the law of liberty.
Is the “Law” contrary to us, or is the “Law” not grevious?
COL. 2:14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross.
1 JOHN 5:3 For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous.
Is there no perfection in the “Law”, or is the “Law” perfect?
HEB. 7:19 For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto God.
PSALMS 19:7 The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple.
Did the “Law” end, or will it endure until the eternal state?
[INDENT]EPH. 2:15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace.
LUKE 16:17 And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than one tittle of the law to fail.[/QUOTE]
Lastly, God stated that He would write His “Law” upon our hearts. Is the Law of God written upon our hearts to obey its precepts, or is the “Law” no longer applicable under the New Covenant?
Jeremiah 31:33
33But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
Without drawing a distinction between the Law of God and the Law of Moses we have utter confusion. This is why we have so many silly standards with no moral compass. What you are proposing is an Antinomianist heresy. We need a sure standard. Again, John wrote:
1 John 3:4
Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
What “law” is John speaking about? The Law of God, the Ten Commandments. This is the opinion of the early church including the Ante-Nicene Fathers:
"Have before thine eyes the fear of God, and always remember the ten commandments of God, - to love the one and only Lord God with all thy strength; to give no heed to idols, or any other beings, as being lifeless gods, or irrational beings or demons. Consider the manifold workmanship of God, which received its beginning through Christ. Thou shalt observe the Sabbath, on account of Him who ceased from His work of creation, but ceased not from His work of providence; it is a rest for meditation of the law, not for the idleness of the hands." (Ante-Nicene Fathers, Volume 7, p. 413, 1951 edition).
Repent Rev. Blume. You’re making the Word of God of none effect through your Antinomian doctrine. Without a sure standard for sin (a law whereby we might know sin) we are lost on a sea of relativism that leaves us in bondage to the arbitrary whims of legalistic pastors.