Commanded to Speak in Tongues?

[Michael The Disciple]

Originally Posted by TGBTG

1 Cor 14
1 Follow after charity, and desire spiritual gifts, but rather that ye may prophesy.
2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.

Right off the bat, the "tongues" Paul is referring to here is not natural language as EVIDENCED by his statement "...in the spirit, he speaketh mysteries (and NO MAN UNDERSTANDS IT)

3 He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church.
4 He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church.

Tongues (without interpretation as stated later in the chapter) serve for PERSONAL EDIFICATION (In lame man's terms: It's like recharging a battery...lol)

5 I would that ye all spake with tongues but rather that ye prophesied: for greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues, except he interpret, that the church may receive edifying.

The Apostle DESIRED that ALL his CONVERTS spoke with tongues (PERSONAL EDIFICATION) but most importantly to PROPHESY (OTHER'S EDIFICATION). When we realize the root of the gospel, we understand why prophecy is greater than tongues because it focuses on others and NOT SELF.

The root of the gospel is a selfless love and that is exemplified in prophesying


14 For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful. (Again, not a natural language)

15 What is it then? I will pray with the spirit (supernatural), and I will pray with the understanding also (natural): I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also.(Amen!)

As for the use of tongues while saints are gathered togthered:

28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.

"Let him keep silence" and "let him speak to himself and God" are not contradictory when we realize that the subject at hand is about order in the church. The "tongue speaker (who cannot interprete) should speak to God in a non-disorderly way...

38 But if any man be ignorant, let him be ignorant.
39 Wherefore, brethren, covet to prophesy, and forbid not to speak with tongues.
40 Let all things be done decently and in order

Very good points. Praying in the spirit is prasying in tongues. So Jude 1 and Eph. 6 are lets say "instructing" all believers to pray in tongues. It is a tool, a weapon of our warfare.

[bbyrd009]

Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple

Very good points. Praying in the spirit is prasying in tongues. So Jude 1 and Eph. 6 are lets say "instructing" all believers to pray in tongues. It is a tool, a weapon of our warfare.

I do not doubt this, and see a basis for even "speaking" in tongues/glossololia. One must wonder tho, why the apparently
almost intentional clouding? Speaking v praying, gloss v xeno--yikes.
This is a singular case of a doctrine hidden, imo.

[Fiyahstarter]

Originally Posted by TGBTG

1 Cor 14
1 Follow after charity, and desire spiritual gifts, but rather that ye may prophesy.
2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.

Right off the bat, the "tongues" Paul is referring to here is not natural language as EVIDENCED by his statement "...in the spirit, he speaketh mysteries (and NO MAN UNDERSTANDS IT)

3 He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church.
4 He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church.

Tongues (without interpretation as stated later in the chapter) serve for PERSONAL EDIFICATION (In lame man's terms: It's like recharging a battery...lol)

5 I would that ye all spake with tongues but rather that ye prophesied: for greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues, except he interpret, that the church may receive edifying.

The Apostle DESIRED that ALL his CONVERTS spoke with tongues (PERSONAL EDIFICATION) but most importantly to PROPHESY (OTHER'S EDIFICATION). When we realize the root of the gospel, we understand why prophecy is greater than tongues because it focuses on others and NOT SELF.

The root of the gospel is a selfless love and that is exemplified in prophesying


14 For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful. (Again, not a natural language)

15 What is it then? I will pray with the spirit (supernatural), and I will pray with the understanding also (natural): I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also.(Amen!)

As for the use of tongues while saints are gathered togthered:

28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.

"Let him keep silence" and "let him speak to himself and God" are not contradictory when we realize that the subject at hand is about order in the church. The "tongue speaker (who cannot interprete) should speak to God in a non-disorderly way...

38 But if any man be ignorant, let him be ignorant.
39 Wherefore, brethren, covet to prophesy, and forbid not to speak with tongues.
40 Let all things be done decently and in order

Yeah---what he said!!!

Great post. (Confirmed with goosebumps... lol)

[J4Truth]

When the Bible stated someone got the Holy Ghost and then stated the affirmation or state of mind of someone witnessing it, it stated that the evidence was them speaking in tongues.

Where does the Bible state someone getting the Holy Ghost and then affirming it with witnesses and stating how they knew they got the Holy Ghost outside of speaking in tongues?

[houston]

Originally Posted by bbyrd009

I do not doubt this, and see a basis for even "speaking" in tongues/glossololia. One must wonder tho, why the apparently
almost intentional clouding? Speaking v praying, gloss v xeno--yikes.
This is a singular case of a doctrine hidden, imo.

Speaking v. Praying is not gloss v. Xeno!!!!

[deacon blues]

Originally Posted by mizpeh

He was talking about the 'gift of tongues' not the evidence of tongues.

"Evidence of tongues" is a OP construct. The phrase is nowhere in the Bible.

[deacon blues]

Originally Posted by J4Truth

When the Bible stated someone got the Holy Ghost and then stated the affirmation or state of mind of someone witnessing it, it stated that the evidence was them speaking in tongues.

Where does the Bible state someone getting the Holy Ghost and then affirming it with witnesses and stating how they knew they got the Holy Ghost outside of speaking in tongues?

Spoke in tongues and magnified God Acts 10
Spoke in tongues and prophesied Acts 19
They were all filled with the Holy Ghost (no tongues mentioned) Acts 4

[deacon blues]

Luke 11:13
13 If you then, being evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to those who ask Him!”

I John 5:14-15
14 Now this is the confidence that we have in Him, that if we ask anything according to His will, He hears us. 15 And if we know that He hears us, whatever we ask, we know that we have the petitions that we have asked of Him.

We receive the Holy Spirit when we ask Him for it!

[HolyFire]

Originally Posted by deacon blues

"Evidence of tongues" is a OP construct. The phrase is nowhere in the Bible.

That phrase has been around since Parham's/Seymour's generation, used in reference to the baptism of the Spirit.

[houston]

Originally Posted by HolyFire

That phrase has been around since Parham's/Seymour's generation, used in reference to the baptism of the Spirit.

Yep.