All Trinitarians are Lost!!!!!!!!!!!

[seekerman]

Originally Posted by rdp

You're as off base as a lesbian pastor is from God:


"And now why are you waiting? Arise and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on the name of the Lord." [Acts 22:16].


The verbs "baptize" & "wash" & the participle "calling" are in the Permissive Middle Voice, also known as the Causative Middle Voice. The significance of the Permissive Middle indicates that the subject [Saul] "Permits" this action to be done to them.


"Calling" is what grammarians call the "Participle of Means," describing how the action of the main verbs are carried out. For example, "Cleanse the garment, washing it..." "Washing" would describe the means by which one is to cleanse the garment [i.e., participle of means].


Saul was the recipient of the action performed upon him in the sense of, "Get yourself baptized, get your sins washed away, get the Name of the Lord called upon you." Let's look at what a few reputable Lexicons & Grammars [& I have many more in my library] say about the Permissive Middle Voice of Acts 22:16:

Blass, Debrunner, Funk, "Grammar," pg. 166:
"The Middle Voice in the sense of 'to let oneself be'...[see] Acts 22:16."

Dr. Daniel Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics (the leading grammar of our day), pp. 425-426:
"Permissive Middle Voice...the subject allows something to be done for or to himself or herself. The Permissive Middle is also like a Passive [Voice] in that the subject is the receiver of the action...[see] Acts 22:16."


*PAY CLOSE ATTENTION TO THIS NEXT ONE:


Dr. A. T. Robertson, Large Grammar [in Light of Historical Research], pp. 808, 1110:

"Acts 22:16, the Causative Middle Voice [meaning] 'Get yourself baptized and get your sins washed away. There is nothing of a distinctive nature to be said about the voice of the participle ['calling'] in addition to what has already been said [about the voices]. THE VOICES RUN IN THE PARTICIPLE ['CALLING'] PRECISELY AS IN THE VERB ITSELF. All the nuances of the voices appear in the participle."


In other words, what is demonstrated in the Permissive [or Causative] Middle Voice of the verbs "baptized" & "wash," [to permit yourself to be], is equally demonstrated in the participle "calling".


"Calling" derives from a compound term of the Greek preposition "epi," meaning "upon," & the verb "Kaleo" defines as "to call or pronounce" [Epi-Kaleo].


Bauer's Greek-English Lexicon, pg. 294: "Epikaleo, someone's name is CALLED OVER SOMEONE." While Bauer does not translate Acts 22.16 in this fashion, this strictly due to their not interacting on a syntactical level (e.g., the Permissive/Causative Mid. Voice force of the verbs). This term is used approximately 32 times in the NT & ALWAYS refers to an oral invocation.


Hence the transliteration, "permit the Name of the Lord to be called upon you" as the means (i.e., participle) of washing away your sins in baptism.


But, here, see below for more....Just in case there are still some who are reluctant to exchange their religious traditions for biblical salvation:


*Dana and Mantey, "A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament," pp. 160-162:

"Acts 22:16....is Middle [Voice] and means get yourself baptized." This Grammar then illustrates the meaning of the Middle Voice w/ I Cor. 6:7 where the church members were taking each other to court. They translate the Permissive Middle Voice [same as Acts 22:16] as, "why not rather LET YOURSELVES be wronged?"


NEB Translation: "And now why delay? Be baptized at once, with invocation of His name, and wash away your sins."


R. A. Knox Translation: "Why art thou wasting time? Rise up and receive baptism, washing away thy sins at the invocation of his name."


Dr. Paul Ferguson, "The Acts of Jesus Christ," pg. 83:
"get your sins washed away by having his name called over you."


M. D. Treece, "The Literal Word," Acts vol. 2, pg. 240:
"...wash away your sins having his name called upon you."


Talmadge French, A.T.F. Journal, pg. 102:

"The circumstantial participle [calling] is non-articular [lacking the definite article] and non-specific [meaning] having the name called over yourself."


**The Greek verbs translated "baptize" & "wash" are Aorist Tense, which denotes all-encompassing time [i.e., past, present, future], and Imperative Mood, meaning a command or order.

In the final syntactical analysis, Acts 22:16 denotes that the Name of Jesus invoked [epikalesamenos] over Saul [Permissive Middle Voice] is a time-less command [Aorist Imperative] & the means [Participle "calling"] by which sins are washed away!


Otherwise we find ourselves in the peculiar predicament of baptizing ourselves & washing away our own sins, which, obviously one would reject.

Moreover, the verb translated "baptize" is generally in the passive voice all throughout Scripture, which is why it's translated as "be baptized" [i.e., by another].


"Arise" in Acts 22:16 is a first person-active-imperative, indicating that Saul was to "Arise" himself. However, the syntactical structure of the sentence then shifts to the permissive middle voice which I have expounded above.

Here's the overriding point: If this was the case w/ the man caught up to heaven & who wrote 2/3 of the NT, what prohibits us from having our sins washed away in the same manner?!





Looks like Elder Epley is not the one who needs to do more homework !

You, nor Epley know what you're talking about. You both are suggesting that "epikalesamenos" is middle voice and therefore means that Ananias is the person calling upon the name of the Lord on behalf of Paul with Paul silently stands there allowing another man to call upon the name of the Lord for him. But simply saying it's the middle voice indicates that Epley knows little about what he speaks.

"Epikalesamenos" isn't simply middle voice or permissive middle voice but is the subject of "be baptized" which is 2 person, singular, aorist 1, imperative mood, and middle voice. This determines how "epikalesamenos" is used. In this case the only conclusion is that the one being baptized is calling on the name of the Lord, which is Paul. It's not possible that ""epikalesamenos" is referring to Ananias, it has to be referring to Paul because he's the one receiving Ananias' command for him, Paul, to be baptized calling upon the name of the Lord. Your bold font, pretty colors and underling has absolutely nothing to do with the truth of the passage. Take it, analyze it, and find what it actually says. I couldn't agree more with French that one has the name called over themselves. The one who is receiving the baptism is calling upon the name of the Lord over themselves, the action is focused on them, not the performance of the baptizor, in this case Ananias.

"The Greek aorist participle, f, translated "calling оn His name" refers еіthеr tо action that iѕ simultaneous with оr beforе thаt of the main verb, "be baptized." Here Paul’s calling оn Christ’s namе for salvation preceded hіs water baptism. The participle mаy be translated "having called оn His name" whіch makes more sense, аѕ it would сleаrlу indіaatе the order оf thе events."

"translated "calling оn His name" refers еіthеr tо action that iѕ simultaneous with оr beforе thаt of the main verb, "be baptized." Here Paul’s calling оn Christ’s namе for salvation preceded hіs water baptism. The participle mаy be translated "having called оn His name" whіch makes more sense, аѕ it would сleаrlу indісatе the order оf thе events."

Not surprisingly your, and Epley's, view places someone between man and God other than Jesus Christ, namely Ananias and his performance which was needed by Paul in order that Paul might be saved. There's nothing in the passage which slightly suggests such a thing.

Looks like you and Epley need to dig a little deeper.