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Old 04-09-2013, 06:15 PM
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Praxeas Praxeas is offline
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Re: The Anointed Jesus?

Quote:
Originally Posted by larrylyates View Post
You are apparently referring to John 3:34 which says in the KJV:"For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him."

The words "unto Him," are in italics in the KJV, indicating that they were added by the translator. This was most likely done because they could not accept the force of the actual Greek text, which literally says: "because He does not give the Spirit by measure."

The words "unto him" do not appear in any of the manuscripts we have available to us.

I leave you to draw your own conclusions from that. However, I do agree with you that with the Baptism of the Holy Ghost we have power through the Name of Jesus.
They were added to clarify to people who otherwise could not figure it out on their own.

The "because" connects that clause with the previous one

Joh 3:34 For he whom God has sent utters the words of God, for he gives the Spirit without measure.
Joh 3:35 The Father loves the Son and has given all things into his hand.

Of this the NET bible says is an idiom

67 tn Grk "for not by measure does he give the Spirit" (an idiom). Leviticus Rabbah 15:2 states: "The Holy Spirit rested on the prophets by measure." Jesus is contrasted to this. The Spirit rests upon him without measure.
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