My very good Friend has a book with quotes from a 1st century source. In it, they speak of the body baptizing in the titles according to
Matthew 28.
The reality, is that prior to our having a canonized scripture, you would have had groups out there who perhaps ONLY had Matthew as fas as the gospels go. Hence they would have baptized as
Matthew 28 instructs them. Later, once the canon was compiled it became IMO clear that Jesus Name baptism was the only scripturally endorsed means of proper baptism.
Threaded Mode
