Hierarchy of Angels:

[Livelystone]

Originally Posted by Nitehawk013

Why would this JOphiel have to replace Lucifer? Since Lucifer DIDN"T EXIST in the oldest manuscripts and didn't show up until the Latin writings (Lucem Ferre(latin) = Lucifer), why would he need replaced? He doesn't and never did exist as an angelic being. Ezekiel TELLS us clear as day he was writing about an earthly king.

According to Judaism, Ha-satan (Satan) was never another angel called Lucifer. He was the angel charged by God with tempting man and recording the failings of man and reporting them to God. He was the "accuser" from the beginning. It appear sthat in the Second Temple period his character started to morph into the "enemy of God" chracter we now consider him to be. They did this by using apocalyptic writings, non-canon writings, and unchristian philosophies.

Good observation!

The word “Lucifer” was a word used to describe the planet Venus and its fall from heaven scene when it comes out from behind the sun and then “falls to earth” as it is seen crossing the face of the sun in a eclipse of the sun. Ironically this particular eclipse from this position of the orbits of the planets around the sun happens once every 2000 years including last year. 2000 years before that we had the appearance of Christ on earth and 2000 years before that we have Abraham who was the father of faith appearing on earth preceded 2000 years by the arrival of Adam.

Yes you are correct in Ezekiel is prophesying of the fall of man by using an earthly king the same as Isaiah is.

Depending on the translation used we see the words translated as either a son of the morning, son of the DayStar, son of the morning Star, and I suppose there are a few more.

The real “MorningStar,” and not the son of it is the sun, that is a metaphor for the SON of God made very clear by the prophet Malachi.

Malachi 4:2
But unto you that fear my name shall the Sun of righteousness arise with healing in his wings; and ye shall go forth, and grow up as calves of the stall

Solomon also understood this principle of metaphors and allegories seen in words describing both things on earth and in the heavens. I think most here can see the message within his following words.

Ecclesiastes 3:16
And moreover I saw under the sun the place of judgment, that wickedness was there; and the place of righteousness, that iniquity was there

Jesus who is God incarnate is the morning star

Revelation 22:16
I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star.

There are only two in the Bible who are given the title of being the son of God (morning star)....... one is Adam and the other is "his brother by a different mother," who is Jesus

Blessings to you

Doug

[Aquila]

Originally Posted by Nitehawk013

Why would this JOphiel have to replace Lucifer? Since Lucifer DIDN"T EXIST in the oldest manuscripts and didn't show up until the Latin writings (Lucem Ferre(latin) = Lucifer), why would he need replaced? He doesn't and never did exist as an angelic being. Ezekiel TELLS us clear as day he was writing about an earthly king.

According to Judaism, Ha-satan (Satan) was never another angel called Lucifer. He was the angel charged by God with tempting man and recording the failings of man and reporting them to God. He was the "accuser" from the beginning. It appear sthat in the Second Temple period his character started to morph into the "enemy of God" chracter we now consider him to be. They did this by using apocalyptic writings, non-canon writings, and unchristian philosophies.

The answer is progressive revelation. Ezekiel is addressing an earthly king... and the spirit that resided in him, Satan.

By the time the New Testament was finished... a more informed revelation of Satan's identity was provided.

[Aquila]

As for Jophiel replacing Satan, it's merely conjecture. A passing thought.

[Aquila]

The Father exists on the throne in theophany. The Son, the man Christ Jesus, is in a glorified human body... seated at the right hand of the Father's theophany. The Father, being God, is present both on the throne and in the man, Christ Jesus.

[Livelystone]

Originally Posted by Aquila

The Father exists on the throne in theophany. The Son, the man Christ Jesus, is in a glorified human body... seated at the right hand of the Father's theophany. The Father, being God, is present both on the throne and in the man, Christ Jesus.

If Jesus Christ is in a physical body far away from where we are here, what are the chances of Christ in us that is our only hope of glory being formed in us?

When Stephen took his last breath he beheld the heavens opened and Jesus at the right hand of God because Stephen was experiencing the new heavens and new earth having obtained the fullness of Christ given witness by the forgiveness of those who murdered him. However, Stephen had not gone anywhere as his body was still on earth the same as when Paul ascended onto the 3rd heaven his body did not go anywhere as his spirit and soul experienced the new heavens.

The same as in my testimony when I was declared dead and people were looking at my dead body at the same time the spirit/soul from within me experienced standing in judgment before the great white throne that is the "3rd heaven," yet physically I never went anywhere.

If the throne of heaven was an actual place you would not see unclean beast hanging around in heavenIn where nothing unclean can survive.

Also what about those Guardian Angels watching over us some of who are the spirits of those who have already died and gone to heaven (for lack of better words)? If they were a long ways from here how could they be our guardian angels here on earth?

Another thing to consider is when Jesus said he was in heaven while he was standing on earth, and so did the apostles essentially say the same thing with the words “our conversation is in heaven” that when translated defines their citizenship as being from heaven while they were ministering to people on earth.

Doug