Then Houston, Please tell me, after Jesus poured out the Holy Ghost at Cornelius house, why did Peter then baptize them in water, if “Water and spirit both refer to the Holy Spirit.”????
Quote:
Originally Posted by houston
I would tell you, but you like to boast about your studying for over 50 years. So, I conclude that it will fall on deaf ears and blind eyes.
If you won't answer Renee, I am ALL eyes and ears, Brutha. Please do explain your position to me. I am just dying to read your explanation.
I don't like the perceived tone that I am picking up from your post.
Don't worry about her she cuts her hair and paints her face.......
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Who art thou that judgest another man's servant? to his own master he standeth or falleth. Yea, he shall be holden up: for God is able to make him stand. (Romans 14:4)
Scripture is its own interpreter. Nothing can cut a diamond but a diamond. Nothing can interpret Scripture but Scripture" Thomas Watson.
Then Houston, Please tell me, after Jesus poured out the Holy Ghost at Cornelius house, why did Peter then baptize them in water, if “Water and spirit both refer to the Holy Spirit.”????
In the next chapter (John 4) Jesus clarifies what the water is, the Holy Ghost.
However, this does not negate other verses that clearly teach the necessity of baptism as a step towards the new birth.
To those who believe receiving the Spirit occurs 'after' salvation, I ask:
Please explain, from the Bible, where or how a person receives the Spirit before receiving the Spirit? As I showed earlier, the apostles understood 'receiving the Spirit' to be synonymous with what we call 'the baptism with the Holy Ghost'. So how can one have (or 'get') the Spirit before receiving the Spirit?
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