Originally Posted by KWSS1976
Quote:
Sasha people get hung up on, this in John 7:39..See even though the bible says he was filled from his mothers womb, folks run to this verse to defend the tongues. Now here is the question is there 2 holyghost/spirit, cause the bible clearly states he was filled, so which holyghost/spirit did John have??
Quote:
|
39 But this He spoke concerning the Spirit, whom those believing[a] in Him would receive; for the Holy Spirit was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified
|
.
|
Sasha wrote
Quote:
|
That is interesting indeed, and an argument I've heard but nobody seems able to answer. I believe that a lot of the Bible is open to interpretation in some areas, but this one I don't understand at all. King David is also said to have had the Holy Spirit in him also.
|
I've answered this several times on here in different Posts.
John the Baptist, had the same kind of Holy Ghost that the OT saints had.
The Holy Ghost would
MOVE ON THEM, and then it was lifted. And John was still in the OT Law age, which lasted until the Cross.
That is why it was such great news when Jesus told the apostles,
“I am now with you but I shall be in you---FOREVER.” (paraphrased)
No one in the Bible ever talked in tongues before Pentecost. And when the Holy Ghost came, it came with TONGUES. And that has been the evidence ever since. That is why Jesus said that He had to go away. That is why, He told us in about 4 or 5 places that He would send the Holy Ghost down.
Please show me where that Jesus changed His mind, and said, [B]“OK, some I will give the Holy Ghost to with the evidence of speaking in other tongues. But then, if you don't believe in speaking in other tongues, well, I'll just give it to you automatically, and you can guess whether you have it or not.” [/B
]“Just claim it by faith, as you claim you are healed, when you are not.”