Ok, so I clicked on the link you provided, and this is what it says:
anér: a man
Original Word: ἀνήρ, ἀνδρός, ὁ
Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: anér
Phonetic Spelling: (an'-ayr)
Short Definition: a male human being, a man
Definition: a male human being; a man,
husband.
Right there in bold is the word husband. Now I know that you say that in the context that Paul couldn't possibly be talking about a husband. Well, that's your opinion. Let's look at that scripture in context again.
8 I will therefore that men pray every where, lifting up holy hands, without wrath and doubting.
9 In like manner also, that women adorn themselves in modest apparel, with shamefacedness and sobriety; not with broided hair, or gold, or pearls, or costly array;
10 But (which becometh women professing godliness) with good works.
11 Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
12 But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.
13 For Adam was first formed, then Eve.
14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.
15 Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety.
This is my opinion too, because... no one of us can know exactly the mind of Paul as he was writing, but in looking at this verse from the context of the passage it was found in, Paul is addressing the
husband/wife issue here, and which is why the word HUSBAND could certainly be used here (using your source as the reference for husband), as he mentions that the woman (wife) would be saved in childbearing. A single woman, or widow is not childbearing, a wife would be the only one childbearing. So, the context IS husband/wife.
Now, I realize that with all your study of Greek, that it is possible that "much learning hath made you mad"
(really, I believe you are sincere, and don't hold that against you). However, you have your opinion about the verse, which is fine. We have ours. Opinions may never meet. But, you continue to choose to acknowledge the fact that Paul taught a woman can prophesy in the church, but get hung up on the "remain silent in church", but you have NEVER SAID how that can be possible.
I have stated that it is possible when a wife is in submission to her husband, that being under his authority, if she has been given a word from the Lord, she can speak.
You are looking at the forest without seeing the trees. Jesus talked ALONE to the Samaritan woman. Why would he do that? How awful, for a MAN to be ALONE with a woman. And then, after He talked to her ALONE, what did she do?
Let's read the verse and see what she did:
John 4
27 And upon this came his disciples, and marvelled that he talked with the woman: yet no man said, What seekest thou? or, Why talkest thou with her?
28 The woman then left her waterpot, and went her way into the city, and saith to the men,
29 Come, see a man, which told me all things that ever I did: is not this the Christ?
30 Then they went out of the city, and came unto him.
39 And many of the Samaritans of that city believed on him for the saying of the woman, which testified, He told me all that ever I did.
You see, Jesus talked with the Samaritan lady, alone, while his disciples were off buying food. Then, the Samaritan women, went and told the MEN to come and see a man who told me all the things I ever did.
And you know what... many of the Samaritans of that city believed for the saying of the woman.
She was the FIRST WOMAN EVANGELIST Jesus sent... and a very effective one at that.
God Bless you Bro. RDP... but I feel sorry for you, that you would never accept a woman who has been sent by God to preach the gospel. If this woman had listened to the disciples, who were aghast that Jesus would talk to this woman alone, none of those Samaritans would have heard the word of God.
To obey GOD is better than to obey the traditions of men.
Threaded Mode
